Answer: Marketing Era
Explanation:
The Marketing Era is one of the so-called eras of Marketing which defined how producers related to customers and hence try to show how marketing has changed over the years.
In the Marketing Era
, the focus of producers was to give the customers items they actually needed and wanted so that instead of having to convince customers to buy goods that the company made which the customers may not have wanted, by making what the customer actually wanted, they would not have to spend so much on convincing them.
Answer:
d. both countries, as whole, will be better off.
Explanation:
When countries leverage on their comparative advantages, they will be better off. In this instance as US has comparative advantage in producing airplanes, it will be more cost effective for them to produce and export to Japan.
So also Japan will find it cheaper to produce televisions and export to the US. Both contries reduce cost by producing goods they have comparative advantage in.
Answer:
Option (B) If the market rate of interest is 10%, the bonds will issue at a discount
Explanation:
Interest rate risk is defined as the risk changing which, interest rates will affect bond prices. When current interest rates are greater than a bond's coupon rate, the bond will be sold below its face value at a discount. When interest rates are less than the coupon rate, the bond can be sold at a premium--higher than the face value.
Answer:
$1,241
Explanation:
For computing the net advantage to leasing first we have to determine the total cash flow from leasing and total cash flow from buying which is shown below:
For leasing:
Year Lease payment PVF at 5.8% Present value
1 $6,500 0.9452 $6,144
2 $6,500 0.8934 $5,807
3 $6,500 0.8444 $5,489
Total outflow $17,440
For buy:
Year Outflow or inflow PVF at 5.8% Present value
0 ($23,000) 1 ($23,000)
1 $1,610 0.9452 $1,522
2 $1,610 0.8934 $1,438
3 $1,610 0.8444 $1,359
Total outflow $18,681
Now the net advantage to leasing is
= Buy outflow - leasing outflow
= $18,681 - $17,440
= $1,241
Answer:
Company 1 = $2 per share
Company 2 = $2.50 per share
Explanation:
Given that,
EBIT for both companies = $1,000
Number of shares outstanding for company 1 = 500
Number of shares outstanding for company 2 = 300
Interest paid by company 2 = $250
EPS for company 1:
= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding
= ($1,000 - $0) ÷ 500
= $2 per share
EPS for company 2:
= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding
= ($1,000 - $250) ÷ 300
= $750 ÷ 300
= $2.50 per share
