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2 years ago

What is the inverse of the function f(x) = one-quarterx – 12? h(x) = 48x – 4 h(x) = 48x + 4 h(x) = 4x – 48 h(x) = 4x + 48

Mathematics

2 answers:

DaniilM [7]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

h(x) = 4x+48

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the function f(x) = 1/4x -12. To get the inverse of the function, first we will let y = f(x) to have y = 1/4x - 12.

Then we will make x the subject of the formula as shown:

y = 1/4x - 12

adding 12 to both sides we have;

y + 12= 1/4x - 12 + 12

y + 12 = 1/4x

Multiplying both sides by 4 we have;

4(y+12) = x

x = 4y + 48

Substituting y for x

y = 4x+48

f^-1(x) = 4x+48

h(x) = 4x+48

Thee final expression will give the inverse of the function

Basile [38]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the function f(x) = 1/4x -12. To get the inverse of the function, first we will let y = f(x) to have y = 1/4x - 12.

Then we will make x the subject of the formula as shown:

y = 1/4x - 12

adding 12 to both sides we have;

y + 12= 1/4x - 12 + 12

y + 12 = 1/4x

Multiplying both sides by 4 we have;

4(y+12) = x

x = 4y + 48

Substituting y for x

y = 4x+48

f^-1(x) = 4x+48

h(x) = 4x+48

Thee final expression will give the inverse of the function

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2 years ago

Please help I need help

qaws [65]

The first answer of part A is 32

So 4y means you have to multiply 4 by y, which is 20 since 4x5=20

And then you add 12, which is 32.

The second answer to part A is 40

With the second question of part a, the expression is basically saying 4 times whatever 5+3 is. So 5+3= 8, and 4(8) is 40

For part B, they are equivalent because let’s pretend y=2. 12+4y= 20. And then 4(y+3) would equal 20 because 4(2)=8 and 4(3)=12 and 8+12=20. This might not be the answer that your teacher is looking for, but it’s still a right answer so technically they can’t say it’s wrong unless you have a super unfair teacher

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babunello [35]

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I hope this was helpful! Tell me if it's unclear!

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Alex

Answer:

LCM of 6 and 15 by Listing Multiples

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