Answer:
(i) 5
(ii) Option (A) is correct.
(iii) Open market operations; sell
Explanation:
(A) The Federal Open Market Committee consists:  
(i) 7 members of the Board of Governors  
(ii) 5 of the 12 regional bank presidents
Therefore, only 5 of the regional bank presidents are the members of FOMC.
(B) The fed is lender of last resort to the banks in the united states which don't have any other source of borrowing.
(C) Open market operations refers to the buying and selling of government securities to the public. The central bank of a particular nation uses open market operations as a monetary policy instrument for controlling money supply.
If the fed wants to decrease the money supply in the economy, then it must sell the government bonds to the public. Hence, there is a reduction in the money supply.
 
        
             
        
        
        
B) If the price elasticity of demand is zero, then all of the tax burdens fall on the sellers (perfectly inelastic).
<h3><u>How does price elasticity work?</u></h3>
A measure of a product's consumption change in response to a price change is called price elasticity of demand. Price elasticity is a tool used by economists to analyze how changes in a product's price affect its supply and demand. Supply has an elasticity similar to demand, and it's called the price elasticity of supply. 
The relationship between a change in supply and a change in price is referred to as price elasticity of supply. By dividing the percentage change in quantity supplied by the percentage change in price, it is determined. What products are produced at what prices depends on the interaction of the two elasticities.
Learn more about price elasticity with the help of the given link:
brainly.com/question/13565779
#SPJ4
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer: 7%
Explanation:
Given data:
P = $5,000
r = ?
t = 40years 
i = $1,000,000
Solution:
NFW = 0 = -$5000 ( F/A , i , 40 ) + $1,000,000
( F/A , i , 40 ) = $1,000,000 / $5,000
= 200
From compound interest table
( F/A , 7% , 40 ) = 199.636
Therefore the return for the investment would be 7%
 
        
             
        
        
        
Comparative advantage<span> refers to the ability of a party to produce a particular good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another.Hope you like:)</span><span>
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Answer:
The correct option is these statements are true
Explanation:
Margin of safety is the measure of the reduction in sales that needs to be recorded before a company makes no profit,invariably the difference the planned sales volume and the sales volume required to break even(makes no profit no loss).
The margin of safety can be expressed in volume,say 100 units of a product,in dollar terms ,say each product sells for $100 each,the margin of safety becomes $10,000($100*100) and can also be expressed in percentage terms depending on the way management wants it stated.