Answer:
first thing to do is get up from your sit and go cry because that question is to hard
Answer:
a. $45.86
b. $43.87
c. Percentage change = -4.40%)
Step-by-step explanation:
a. Let the price of share at the beginning of first year be represented with X
Now, Price of company's share dropped by 3.50% at the end of first year.
So, Price of share at the end of first year = x - 3.5% of x
= x - 0.035x
= 1x - 0.035x
= 0.965x
But it is equal to $44.25
=> 0.965x = 44.25
x = 44.25 / 0.965
x = 45.8549223
x = $45.86
b. During second year price of share decreased by $1.99. Therefore, Price of share at the end of second year = $45.86 - $1.99 = $43.87
c. Percentage change in the price of shares over two years = {(45.86 - 43.87)/45.86} *100
= (1.99/45.86)*100
= 0.04339294 * 100
= 4.40%
Now, as price of shares has dropped, the percentage change will be negative. (Δ% = -4.40%)
$20 because 10% of 40 is 10 and the price now is 40 so 2 years before would have been 20
Answer:
23+ 37 = 42
the EG is congruent to the FA and therefore have to dividee the value to get 302
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
A vertical stretch of a function means the output values have changed by a factor of 3 or multiplication by 3. Recall, an exponential function has the basic form
.
If our equation is 
, then a=1. To stretch it vertically by a factor of 3, we multiply a by 3. So 1(3)=3. The value of a now becomes 3.
