Under the <u>Uniform Securities Act</u>, the threshold where a State-registered adviser is considered to have taken custody of client funds if it charges prepaid advisory fees, is: <u>$500, 6 months or more in advance of rendering services.</u>
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If an advisor either physically possesses or has the legal right to take possession of money or securities belonging to its clients, then it has custody. The term "custody" has been expanded by the rule's revisions to cover situations in which an adviser's related person holds custody of client assets in conjunction with the adviser's advisory services. If an investment adviser's connected broker-dealer holds client assets as a qualified custodian in conjunction with advising services, the investment adviser would be deemed to have custody of those assets.
Consultants may be considered to have taken ownership of customer funds as defined by NASAA when a nationally registered investment manager acknowledges $500 (or more) in advanced consulting fees, 6 months prior to the anticipation of performing services. While the Advisers (Investment) Act of 1940 did not apply to government-registered advisors, it is worth noting that it may have set the maximum at $1,200 among Federal Covered advisors.
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Answer
A. High interest rate and long time period conditions will maximize the amounts of interest you earn.
Explanation
When interest rates are high, there will be a higher increase from the savings and money invested that was first placed. Continuation of such a condition will in the long run caused an accumulation of the added interest thus making it to keep growing larger if not withdrawn.
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
Cost of common stock:
= (Expected dividend at the end of Year 1 ÷ Price of stock) + Growth rate.
= (1.45 ÷ 22.50) + 0.065
= 0.0644 + 0.065
= 0.1294 i.e., 12.94%
Conclusion:-
Cost of common stock = 12.94%
Note:-
D1 = Expected dividend at the end of Year 1,
P0 = Current price of common stock, and
gL = Growth level i.e., growth rate in dividend.
Answer:
Explanation:
a) since MR=MC, then 15-2Q=3+Q. So, the monopolist produce Q=4
price P=15-Q=10-4=6
profit=6*3-TC=18-(3+4+0.5*4^2)=3
b)since the P=6=6, domestic production will stay the same. The domestic consumption will stay the same. For Wilknam, it will import soccer balls.
c)yes, it holds that Wiknam will be an importer. Because the price for domestic production is 6 which is same as the world price 6.
d)Since the price within country is the same with price out of country, and also, MC=3+Q=7>6, Wiknam will import soccer balls. The monopolist market will become a competitive market.Even though the price won't change,the product will be of high quality and so on. The market will become more equilibrium.
Answer:
Yield management pricing
Explanation:
Yield management pricing is the charging of different prices for a given set of capacity at a specific time in order to maximize revenue. This is based on the demand and supply in the market and is very common in industries such as airlines, hotels and resorts. When there is very high demand for airline seats, prices for them are high. However, if some of those passengers decided to refund their tickets, close to departure and the flight would be taking off soon, instead of flying with empty seats and no revenue from them, the airline would decide to sell these same seats at a cheaper rate in order to gain some revenue. This is a form of revenue maximization.
