Job costing systems are used to accumulate the cost of a individual job
Answer:
beginning projected benefit obligation or the market-related asset value
Explanation:
The balance of the Unrecognized Net Gain or Loss account subject to amortization only if it exceeds 10% of the larger of the beginning balances of the projected benefit obligation or the market-related value of the plan assets.
Amortization is simply the procedure or the process of retiring a debt or recovering a capital investment. This can be done via scheduled, systematic repayment of the principal or a program of periodic contributions to a sinking fund or debt retirement fund.
Answer:
Assume that the uncovered interest parity condition holds. Also assume that the U.S. interest rate is greater than the U.K. interest rate. Given this information, we know that investors expect the pound to appreciate.
Explanation:
Considering the assumption that the uncovered interest parity condition holds and also that the interest rate in the U.S is greater than the U.K interest rate.
The above assumptions imply that there will be a depreciation in the dollar and an appreciation in the pound.
Therefore, investors would expect the pound to appreciate.
Answer:
The last option is the answer -$141.80
Explanation:
we will use the present value formula for Trish she gets paid every first day of the month therefore she will receive an immediate payment of cash flow which will be added to the present value of future periodic value. Therefore we will find the difference between present values for Trish and Josh which have the same amounts which they'll receive per month.
Given: Trish and josh both receive $450 per month therefore that will be C the monthly future payment that will be received.
They will receive these amounts in a course period of Four years so that will be n = 4 x12=48 because we know that they will receive these payments every month or on a monthly basis for four years. which n represent periodic payments.
i which is the discount rate of 9.5%/12 as we know they will recieve these amounts monthly.
Therefore using the following formulas for present value annuity:
Pv = C[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i] and Pv= C[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i](1+i) then get the difference between these two present values for Trish and Josh.
therefore we will substitute the above values on the above mentioned formula to get the difference:
Pv= 450[(1-(1+9.5%/12)^-48)/(9.5%/12)] - 450[(1-(1+9.5%/12)^-48)/(9.5%/12)](1+9.5%/12) then we compute and get
Pv= $17911.77614 - $18053.5777
Pv = -$141.80 is the difference between the two sets of present values as one has an immediate payment and one doesn't have it.
Based on the selling price of the car and the cost to work on it, Savion should sell the car now for $3,800.
<h3>Why should Savion sell the car?</h3><h3 />
The profit if he works on the car is:
= Selling price - Addtional work cost
= 5,800 - 2,400
= $3,400
The profit from selling the car is $3,800 which is more than the profit if additional work is done of $3,400.
The $4,000 is irrelevant as it is a sunk cost.
Find out more on sunk costs at brainly.com/question/13695005.
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