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Mekhanik [1.2K]
3 years ago
6

Accumulated Depreciation is:a. contra asset account b. is used to show the amount of cost expiration of intangibles c. is the sa

me as Depreciation Expense d. is used to show the amount of cost expiration of natural resources
Business
2 answers:
marshall27 [118]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a)  Contra Asset Account

Explanation:

Its is an asset account  with a negative (Credit) balance to show the amount of    the Accumulated Depreciation charged on a particular Asset to match the initial cost.

alina1380 [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is A, contra asset

Explanation:

A contra asset is a negative asset account which is set off against the asset to which is related.

The depreciation on assets are not posted to the asset account because the asset account is only meant to show the initial cost of the asset,but the true value of the asset at  each reporting needs to be shown.

The way out is to set the balance in accumulated depreciation account(contra asset) against the balance in the asset account in order to ascertain the asset net book value.

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Question 4
SashulF [63]

1. The calculated capital budgeting techniques yielded the following results:

A. Accounting Rate of Return (AROR) is <u>28%</u>.

B. Payback Period Technique (PBP) is <u>5 years</u>.

C. Net Present Value Technique (NPV) is <u>RM33,588</u>.

D. Profitability Index (PI) is <u>1.056</u>.

2. The project should be accepted based on the positive results above.

3. The importance of capital budgeting techniques lies in the fact that they aid capital decision-making by measuring their probable outcomes.

<h3>What are capital budgeting techniques?</h3>

Capital budgeting techniques are capital investment evaluation tools.

Some of the capital budget tools include the Payback Period, Discounted Payment Period, Net Present Value, Profitability Index, Internal Rate of Return, and Modified Internal Rate of Return.

These capital budgeting techniques help management to evaluate capital projects and to choose investment strategies.

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

Investment cost = RM600,000

Cost of capital = 12%

            Net Cash Flows      PV Factor     Present Value

Year 0     RM600,000               1              (RM600,000)

Year 1       RM100,000           0.893                  89,300

Year 2            110,000            0.797                  87,670

Year 3            121,000            0.712                   86,152

Year 4            133,100            0.636                 84,652

Year 5            146,410            0.567                  83,014

Year 6    RM400,000            0.507              202,800

Present value of cash flows =                 RM633,588

Net Present Value                                      RM33,588

Total Net Cash Flows = RM1,010,510

Average Net Cash flows = RM168,418 (RM1,010,510/6)

Accounting Rate of Return = Average Income/Initial Cost

= 28% (RM168,418/RM600,000 x 100)

Payback period = 5 years

NPV = Initial Investment - PV of net cash flows

= RM33,588

Profitability Index = Present value of cash flows/Initial Cost

= 1.056 (RM633,588/RM600,000)

Learn more about capital budgeting techniques at brainly.com/question/17159659

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
Mario owns a store that sells skateboard equipment. Mario understands that people are most likely to notice his headline text in
Shalnov [3]
What Mario should do from including this in his headline is being considerate on how he is doing from knowing how the people are going to be apparently right to give note in his own headline he created by using a text ad.
6 0
3 years ago
Darlene is getting an FHA-insured loan to purchase a house. The purchase price is $278,000, and she’s paying 3.5% down. She will
omeli [17]

Answer:

96.5%

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Purchase price i.e the value = $278,000

Down payment paid = 3.5%

Upfront mortgage insurance premium = $4,865

Now,

Amount of down payment = 3.5% of loan value

= 0.035 × $278,000

= $9,730

Therefore,

The loan value = value - Amount of down payment

= $278,000 -  $9,730

= $268,270

Thus,

loan-to-value on the loan = [ loan value ÷ value ] × 100%

= [ $268,270 ÷ $278,000 ] × 100%

= 96.5%

4 0
3 years ago
Who is the son of the actress who played the mother-in-law of the “Sex and the City” character who graduated Harvard?
irinina [24]
Miranda Hobbes is the mother in law who graduated from harvard, she’s now a lawyer
7 0
4 years ago
Christopher, an accounts manager at a mid-sized health care firm, does not have any direct international responsibilities; howev
monitta

Answer:

better understanding how foreign operations affect the company's competitive advantage.

Explanation:

Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that Christopher would greatly benefit by better understanding how foreign operations affect the company's competitive advantage. Mostly due to the fact that it would allow Christopher to determine certain aspects or scenarios that the company may not realize and maybe help him climb in the ranks.

7 0
3 years ago
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