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galina1969 [7]
3 years ago
13

You have covered a grounded metal surface with a layer of photoconductor. Working in the dark, you sprinkle negative charge onto

this surface. If you now expose only the left half of the photoconductor to light, you will find that
(A) the left half becomes neutral while the right half remains negatively charged.
(B) nothing happens because there is no changing magnetic field.
(C) negative charge flows from the right side of the photoconductor to the left and both sides become neutral.
(D) the right half becomes neutral while the left half remains negatively charged.
Physics
1 answer:
Keith_Richards [23]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A. the left half becomes neutral while the right half remains negatively charged

Explanation:

This is because wherever light strikes the photoconductor, it transforms from an insulator into a conductor. The charge will then migrate through it and leaves its surface. By exposing the left half of the photoconductor to light, you allow its local charge to leave and it becomes neutral.

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I Science Sem 1
Sonbull [250]

Answer:

Force, F = 124 N

Explanation:

We have,

Mass of bicycle is 12 kg and mass of rider is 50 kg

Total mass of the system is 12 kg + 50 kg = 62 kg

Acceleration of the system is 2 m/s²

It is required to find the force required to accelerate the system. The force acting on an object is given by :

F=ma\\\\F=62\ kg\times 2\ m/s^2\\\\F=124\ N

So, the force of 124 N is acting on the system.  

7 0
3 years ago
If you drop a ball off a cliff, it starts out at 0 m/s. after 1 s, it will be traveling at about 10 m/s. if air resistance is re
anastassius [24]

The ball dropped of a cliff will have a final velocity of 19.6 m/s at 2s

The free fall formula and the procedure we will use is:

fv = g* t

Where:

  • fv = final velocity
  • g = acceleration due to gravity
  • t = time taken
  • h = height traveled

Information of the problem:

  • g = 9.8 m/s².
  • t = 2 s
  • vf = ?

Applying final velocity formula we get:

fv = g* t

fv = 9.8 m/s² * 2 s

fv = 19.6 m/s

<h3>What is free fall?</h3>

It is when the object or mobile falls from a height (h) with a positive acceleration equal to the gravity, describing a vertical rectilinear travel.

Learn more about free fall at brainly.com/question/11257529

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5 0
2 years ago
Explain what happens to the domain in a bar magnet if:
JulijaS [17]

Answer:

1)Each one reinforces the magnetic fields of the others. Each one has a tiny north and south pole. If you cut one in half, the newly cut faces will become the new north or south poles of the smaller pieces.

2)Permanent magnets can lose their magnetism if they are dropped or banged on enough to bump their domains out of alignment. ... The reason that would be hard to bump a piece of iron and make it magnetic is because of the way vibrations propagate in the material.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
A long, straight wire with 2 A current flowing through it produces magnetic field strength 1 T at its surface. If the wire has a
jeka57 [31]

Answer:

r = 3.36 \times 10^{-7} m

Explanation:

As per Ampere's law of magnetic field we know that

line integral of magnetic field along closed ampere's loop is equal to the product of current enclosed and magnetic permeability of medium

So it is given as

\int B. dl = \mu_0 i_{en}

here we can say that enclosed current is given as

i_{en} = \frac{i}{\pi R^2} (\pi r^2)

now from ampere'e loop law for any point inside the wire we will have

B.(2\pi r) = \mu_o (\frac{ir^2}{R^2}

B = \frac{\mu_0 i r}{2\pi R^2}

now we know that magnetic field inside the wire is 84% of the field at its surface

so we will have

0.84 \frac{\mu_o i}{2\pi R} = \frac{\mu_o i r}{2\pi R^2}

so we have

r = 0.84 R

now we know

\frac{\mu_o i}{2\pi R} = 1

here i = 2 A

R = 2\times 10^{-7} m

so now we have

r = 3.36 \times 10^{-7} m

7 0
3 years ago
A positron is an antimatter version of the electron, having exactly the same mass. When a positron and an electron meet.they ann
BARSIC [14]

Answer:

Explanation:

Energy equivalent of mass m is given by Einstein''s mass energy formula

E = mc² , m is mass and c is speed of light.

mass of electron = mass of positron

= 9.1 x 10⁻³¹ kg

Total mass = 2 x 9.1 x 10⁻³¹ kg

Energy equivalent = mc²

= 2 x 9.1 x 10⁻³¹ x( 3 x 10⁸)²

= 163.8 x 10⁻¹⁵ J

b ) Let v be the velocity of proton when this energy is given to it . Mass of proton is 1.67 x 10⁻²⁷ kg

So equating the two energy

1/2 x 1.67 x 10⁻²⁷ x v² = 163.8 x 10⁻¹⁵

v² = 196 x 10¹²

v = 14 x 10⁶ m / s

c ) If this energy is given to a single electron and v is its velocity

1/2 m v² = 163.8 x 10⁻¹⁵

.5 x 9.1 x 10⁻³¹ v² = 163.8 x 10⁻¹⁵

v² = 36  x 10¹²

v = 6  x 10⁶ m/s

5 0
3 years ago
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