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vekshin1
3 years ago
11

How to convert 4/80 into a percentage

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alona [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

5.0

Step-by-step explanation:

you convert into decimal 0.05 and move two places to the right. 5.0

Zolol [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

4/80= 1/20

1/20= .05

.05= 5%

Step-by-step explanation:

a fraction, it is a division, solve it and it will give you a decimal number, that decimal number can be converted into a percentage very easy, I teach you:

When a fraction when solving gives 1, that means it is 100%, therefore if a fraction gives us .5, it means that it is 50%, when there are 2 decimals, such as: 1/3 = .3333 = 33.3333%.

The decimal point is shifted 2 places to its right and then "%" is added, resulting in a percentage

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A rectangle has a perimeter of 182 in and length of 52 in. What is the width?
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Check the picture below.

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3 years ago
Please help me, thank you
Pavel [41]

Answer:

the answer is -3. Your welcome

4 0
3 years ago
State the horizontal asymptote of the rational function. For full credit, explain the reasoning you used to find the horizontal
Rzqust [24]

So here are the rules of horizontal asymptotes:

  • Degree of Numerator > Degree of Denominator: No horizontal asymptote
  • Degree of Numerator = Degree of Denominator: y=\frac{\textsf{leading coefficient of numerator}}{\textsf{leading coefficient of denominator}}
  • Degree of Numerator < Degree of Denominator: y = 0

Looking at the rational function, since the degree of the numerator is 2 and the degree of the denominator is 1 (and 2 > 1), this means that <u>this function has no horizontal asymptote.</u>

5 0
3 years ago
Assume the random variable X has a binomial distribution with the given probability of obtaining a success. Find the following p
aev [14]

Answer:

P(X < 3) = 0.7443

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that the random variable X has a binomial distribution with the given probability of obtaining a success. Also, given n = 6, p = 0.3.

The above situation can be represented through Binomial distribution;

P(X=r) = \binom{n}{r}p^{r} (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 6

            r = number of success = less than 3

           p = probability of success which in our question is 0.3.

LET X = a random variable

So, it means X ~ Binom(n=6, p=0.3)

Now, Probability that X is less than 3 = P(X < 3)

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

             = \binom{6}{0}0.3^{0} (1-0.3)^{6-0}+ \binom{6}{1}0.3^{1} (1-0.3)^{6-1}+ \binom{6}{2}0.3^{2} (1-0.3)^{6-2}

             = 1 \times 1 \times 0.7^{6}  +6 \times 0.3^{1}  \times 0.7^{5}  +15 \times 0.3^{2}  \times 0.7^{4}

             = 0.11765 + 0.30253 + 0.32414 = 0.7443

Therefore, P(X < 3) = 0.7443.

5 0
3 years ago
Negative one over two equals negative five over eighteen h
love history [14]

Answer:

the answer is h = 5 / 9.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given is "negative one over two equals negative five over eighteen h"

It means -1 / 2 = -5 / 18h

Using cross multiplication method,

-1 * 18h = -5 * 2

-18h = -10

Cancelling negative signs from both sides,

18h = 10

Dividing both sides by 18,

h = 10 / 18

h = 5/ 9

Hence, the answer is h = 5 / 9.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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