Can someone please help asap!!! tysm

Some believe that the positions of the planets at the time

laila [671]

Answer:

$1.4007\times 10^{-8}\ N$

$1.50075\times 10^{-6}\ N$

$0.000000667\ N$

Explanation:

$m_1$ = Mass of baby = 3 kg

G = Gravitational constant = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ m³/kgs²

r = Distance between objects

Gravitational force of attraction is given by

$F=\dfrac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}\\\Rightarrow F=\dfrac{6.67\times 10^{-11}\times 70\times 3}{1^2}\\\Rightarrow F=1.4007\times 10^{-8}\ N$

The force between baby and obstetrician is $1.4007\times 10^{-8}\ N$

$F=\dfrac{6.67\times 10^{-11}\times 3\times 2.7\times 10^{27}}{(6\times 10^{11})^2}\\\Rightarrow F=1.50075\times 10^{-6}\ N$

The force between the baby and Jupiter is $1.50075\times 10^{-6}\ N$

$F=\dfrac{6.67\times 10^{-11}\times 3\times 2.7\times 10^{27}}{(9\times 10^{11})^2}\\\Rightarrow F=0.000000667\ N$

The force between the baby and Jupiter is $0.000000667\ N$

7 0

3 years ago

Oil explorers set off explosives to make loud sounds, then listen for the echoes from underground oil deposits. Geologists suspe

Elenna [48]

Answer:

dg= 942m

Explanation:

given the depth of the granite Us dg = 500m

time between the explosion t = 0.99s

the speed of sound in granite is Vg = 6000m/s

First of all calculate the time it takes the sound waves to travel down through the lake

Vw = dw/t1

t1 = dw/Vw

t1 = 500/1480

t1 = 0.338s.

Let dg be the depth of the granite basin, so the time it takes for the sound to travel down through the granite is t2 = dg/6000m/s......equation(1)

So the total time it takes to travel down to the oil surface will be

t1/2 = t1 + t2

t1/2= 0.338 + dg/6000.

since the reflection on the oil does not change the speed of sound, the sound will take travelling upto the surface the same time it takes to reach the oil

so; t = 2 t1/2

t1/2 = t/2 = 0.99s/2 = 0.495

Now insert into the values of t1/2 into the equation (1) and solve for dg;

we get 0.495 = 0.338 + dg/6000

dg = (0.495 - 0.338) x 6000

dg = 942m.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Hello, I want to ask. . anyone knows the answer.

sasho [114]

Answer:

C?

Explanation:

Please give brainliest.

5 0

3 years ago

For a 1 efficient step down transformer voltage in primary and secondary are equal current in primary and secondary are equal in

Fynjy0 [20]

The given condition for a 100% efficient step down transformer is not true.

<h3>How do Step-down Transformers work?</h3>

Because there are fewer turns in the secondary winding of a step-down transformer, the secondary voltage is lower than the initial voltage. As a result, this kind of transformer is employed to reduce the voltage to the levels intended for the circuit. Almost all power supply incorporate a step-down transformer to keep the operating voltage range of the circuit within acceptable limits. Electronic transformers and distribution systems are often where these transformers are installed (power transformers).

<h3>What Does a Step-Down Transformer Mean by Power?</h3>

Using the system voltage and current, we can calculate the power of a transformer. Volt-Amps, or VA, is the unit used to measure the power in a transformer (for larger transformers Kilo Volt-Amps, kVA).

Any transformer should, in theory, have constant power on both sides, which implies that the power available on the secondary side of the transformer should match the power available on the primary side. This also applies to step-down transformers. A step-down transformer's secondary side has a lower voltage than its primary side, hence in order to balance the transformer's total power, the secondary current would need to be increased.

<h3>What is the Step-Down Transformer's Relationship Between Voltage and Current?</h3>

In a step-down transformer, the output current is greater than the input current while the output voltage is lower than the primary voltage.

To know more about step down transformer visit:

brainly.com/question/7551270

#SPJ4

5 0

2 years ago

Consider two soap bubbles with radius r1 and r2 (r1 <r2) connected via a valve. What happens if we open the valve

Sedaia [141]

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The pressure difference of the first bubble is $\Delta P _1 =10 J/m^3$

The pressure difference of the second bubble is $\Delta P _2 =20 J/m^3$

The pressure difference on the second bubble is higher than that of the first bubble so when the valve is opened pressure from second bubble will cause air to flow toward the first bubble making is bigger

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The radius of the first bubble is $r_1 = 10 \ mm=0.01 \ m$