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Evaluate the indefinite integral:

Make a trigonometric substitution:

so the integral (i) becomes


Now, substitute back for t = arcsin(x²), and you finally get the result:

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You could also make
x² = cos t
and you would get this expression for the integral:

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which is fine, because those two functions have the same derivative, as the difference between them is a constant:
![\mathsf{\dfrac{1}{2}\,arcsin(x^2)-\left(-\dfrac{1}{2}\,arccos(x^2)\right)}\\\\\\ =\mathsf{\dfrac{1}{2}\,arcsin(x^2)+\dfrac{1}{2}\,arccos(x^2)}\\\\\\ =\mathsf{\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot \left[\,arcsin(x^2)+arccos(x^2)\right]}\\\\\\ =\mathsf{\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot \dfrac{\pi}{2}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cmathsf%7B%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5C%2Carcsin%28x%5E2%29-%5Cleft%28-%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5C%2Carccos%28x%5E2%29%5Cright%29%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A%3D%5Cmathsf%7B%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5C%2Carcsin%28x%5E2%29%2B%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5C%2Carccos%28x%5E2%29%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A%3D%5Cmathsf%7B%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5Ccdot%20%5Cleft%5B%5C%2Carcsin%28x%5E2%29%2Barccos%28x%5E2%29%5Cright%5D%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A%3D%5Cmathsf%7B%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5Ccdot%20%5Cdfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B2%7D%7D)

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and that constant does not interfer in the differentiation process, because the derivative of a constant is zero.
I hope this helps. =)
Answer:
It's no correlation
Step-by-step explanation:
It's no correlation because the dots are scattered everywhere. There's no exact direction they all lead to.
Answer:
The answer is D
Step-by-step explanation:
Coplanar means that they are on the same closed area(or plane)- P, M, C, N are all on the same Plane.
7 7/9
chamge 11 2/3 to improper faction and multiply <span />
Answer:
A) 6Gn + 12 (or 6n+12, if that’s what you meant)
B) 4p²+9p
C) 5r²+20r
Step-by-step explanation:
A. If you meant 6(n+2)...
Multiply 6 by n and also 6 by 2:
6n + 12
B. Multiply p by 4p and also p by 9
4p²+9p
C. Multiply 5r by r and also 5r by 4
5r²+20r
Hope this helped!