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Murljashka [212]
3 years ago
8

Confused! Please help and show how you did it.

Mathematics
1 answer:
natta225 [31]3 years ago
7 0
The formula for the area is length times width, so for question 17, multiply those two numbers together.

If he drives 9 miles to work per day and works 5 days a week, you would need to get the total of miles per week. Then, once you do, multiply that number by 52.

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A right triangle includes one angle that mesures 30 degrees. What is the measure of the third angle?
Airida [17]

The third angle is 60 degrees. A triangle has 180 degrees so 180-30-90=60

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}

And replacing we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99

And now we can solve for \lambda

0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)

ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)

\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}

Where :

f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)

f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

4 0
3 years ago
Is 9/16 closest to 0, 1/2, 1, or 9
REY [17]

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

9/16 is equal to 0.5625 . The closest number to this is 0.5 which is the same as 1/2

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the function g(x)-x+2 with initial values of 4, 2, and 1. What happens
kolezko [41]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The given function is , g(x)= - x + 2

For values of ,   is the sequence, -2,4,-2,4,-2,4........

For values of ,   is the sequence, 0,2,0,2........

For values of ,   is the sequence, 1,1,1,1,........

For initial value, of 4,the sequence converges to two values that is -2, 4.

For initial value of 2, the sequence again converges to two values which are 0,2.

For initial value of 1, the sequence converges to one value which is 1.

→→First Iterative value that is (-2)=Second iterative value (0) + 2 ×Third iterative value(1)

→→ First Iterative value that is (4)=Second iterative value (2) + 2 ×Third iterative value(1)

4 0
3 years ago
Urgent help algebra 2
Vaselesa [24]

Answer:

y = - 1/4 x + 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Find two convenient integer coordinates like   -4,2 and  4, 0

  use these points to  calculate the slope to be -1/4

   intercept is b = 1

y = -1/4 x + 1

3 0
2 years ago
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