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kolezko [41]
3 years ago
8

A lottery winner can take $6 million now or be paid $600,000 at the end of each of the next 16 years. The winner calculates the

internal rate of return (IRR) of taking the money at the end of each year and, estimating that the discount rate across this period will be 4%, decides to take the money at the end of each year. Was her decision correct
Business
2 answers:
Semmy [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Yes, her decision was correct because of Net present value rule.

Explanation:

the net present value (NPV) applies to a series of cash flows occurring at different times.

The present value of a cash flow depends on the interval of time between now and the cash flow. It also depends on the discount rate. NPV accounts for the time value of money. It provides a method for evaluating and comparing capital projects or financial products with cash flows spread over time, as in loans, investments, payouts from insurance contracts plus many other applications.

Time value of money dictates that time affects the value of cash flows.

harkovskaia [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

She was correct, the IRR for the cash flow is 6.15% compared to the 4% discount rate.

Explanation:

The two basic ways to decide whether a project is feasible or not are the net present value (NPV) and the internal rate of return (IRR).

The net present value is the prime test that you must always use first. But in this case, you do not need to calculate it because the IRR is higher than the discount rate. The IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV will equal 0. So an IRR higher than the discount rate will always yield a positive NPV.

Projects are considered feasible when the NPV ≥ 0, and if you have to choose between two or more mutually exclusive projects and both have positive NPVs, you should choose the project with the highest IRR (or MIRR if you really like math).

Since I like math, the NPV = $991,377, and you need more information to calculate MIRR.

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Good that cost one half dollar in the U.S. cost one euro in Germany, the real exchange rate would be computed as how many German
olchik [2.2K]

Answer:

Real Exchange Rate computed as German goods per U.S. goods: 2

Explanation:

Cost in the US: 0.50 dollar

Cost in Germany: 1 euro

Real Exchange Rate: German Goods / U.S. Goods

Real Exchange Rate: 1 / 0.50 = 2

The real exchange rate measures the price of foreign goods relative to the price of domestic goods.

3 0
3 years ago
On December 1, 2017, Prosen Distributing Company had the following account balances.
maxonik [38]

Answer:

if i was u i would dived and split it into 2rolls to help me

Explanation:

i would do it but i kinda dont have time right now i hope this helps u "WHOLE LOTTA LOVE'

5 0
3 years ago
When evaluating advertising results, what technique can be used to measure consumer's beliefs or feelings about a product before
dolphi86 [110]

When evaluating advertising results, the Attitudinal measure technique can be used to measure consumers' beliefs or feelings about a product before and after exposure to the ad.

<h3>What are Pre-testing and post-testing in advertising?</h3>

Pre-testing and Post-testing. Pretesting is testing the advertisement before running it so that the likelihood of preparing the most effective ads, by allowing an opportunity to detect and eliminate weaknesses or flaws increases. Post-testing is done after the advertisement is run on the media.

Advertising Research – 4 Important Types: Product Appeal, Advertising Message, Advertising Media Selection, and Advertising Effectiveness Research.

To learn more about post-testing visit the link

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8 0
2 years ago
Production 54,000 units 60,000 units Machine-hours 985 hours 1,800 hours Fixed overhead costs for September $53,400 $90,000 The
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

The fixed overhead production-volume variance is $9,000 U

Explanation:

In this question, we are tasked with calculating the fixed overhead production-volume variance.

We start by calculating the fixed overhead applied to production.

mathematically that is equal to : 54,000 * 0.03 * 50 = 81,000

The budgeted fixed overhead = 90,000

Mathematically,

Fixed overhead production-volume variance = Budgeted fixed overhead - fixed overhead applied to production = 90,000 - 81,000 = $9,000 U

6 0
3 years ago
What is a joint venture? Multiple Choice an effort in which one firm grants access to its patents and trademarks for a fee an ar
natali 33 [55]

Answer:

A cooperative effort among two or more organizations that share a common interest in a business enterprise or undertaking.

Explanation:

A joint venture is defined as a business agreement where two or more parties pool their resources together to achieve a common goal. Usually profits and losses are shared equally among the parties unless there is an agreement to share otherwise.

The joint venture is an independent entity that is seperate from its owners. That means any liability of the joint venture is not binding on the parties involved.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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