Answer: Price of stock at year end =$53
Explanation:
we first compute the Expected rate of return using the CAPM FORMULAE that
Expected return =risk-free rate + Beta ( Market return - risk free rate)
Expected return=6% + 1.2 ( 16%-6%)
Expected return= 0.06 + 1.2 (10%)
Expected return=0.06+ 0.12
Expected return=0.18
Using the formulae Po= D1 / R-g to find the growth rate
Where Po= current price of stock at $50
D1= Dividend at $6 at end of year
R = Expected return = 0.18
50= 6/ 0.18-g
50(0.18-g) =6
9-50g=6
50g=9-6
g= 3/50
g=0.06 = 6%
Now that we have gotten the growth rate and expected return, we can now determine the price the investors are expected to sell the stock at the end of year.
Price of stock = D( 1-g) / R-g
= 6( 1+0.06)/ 0.18 -0.06
=6+0.36/0.12
=6.36/0.12= $53
Answer: 9.7%
Explanation:
Given Data
Rf = Risk free return = 6%,
Rpm = Risk premium = 4%,
Beta = 0.9
Wd = Debt = 20%
rd = cost of debt = 8%
We = equity = 80%
Re = Rf + Beta (Rpm)
= 0.06 +0.9 (0.04)
= 0.096 * 100
= 9.6%
Unlevered Equity Cost ;
ReU= Wd × rd + We × re
= 0.20 × 8% + 0.80 × 9.6%
= 9.28%
Levered Equity Cost:
New Debt = 60%,
New Equity = 40%,
New rd = 9%
ReL = ReU + (ReU - rd) (D ÷ E)
= 9.28% + (9.28% - 9%) (0.60 ÷ 0.40)
= 0.097 * 100
= 9.7%
Answer:
Case 1 = $9,420
Case 2 = 0
Explanation:
Determining the amount of impairment loss is given below:-
Case 1
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= $41,640 - $32,220
= $9,420
Case 2
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= 91,800 - $102,220
= 0
Since, the fair value is higher than Amortized cost so the value of Impairment loss in case 2 is 0.
Answer:
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