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Savatey [412]
2 years ago
9

∠Q and ∠R are complementary. If m∠Q = 33.8°, what is m∠R ? m∠R = 146.2° m∠R = 33.8° m∠R = 123.8° m∠R = 56.2°

Mathematics
1 answer:
Brrunno [24]2 years ago
5 0

Complementary angles add together to equal 90 degrees.

R = 90 - 33.8

R = 56.2 degrees.

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Mr. and Mrs. Bailey need to invest $2906.50 so as to send their son to college.

<h3>Compound interest</h3>

Compound interest is given by:

A=P(1+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

where A is the amount after t years, P is initial amount, r is the rate and n is the times compounded per period

Given that n = 1, r = 9% = 0.09, A = $7500 t = 11. Hence:

7500=P(1+\frac{0.09}{1} )^{1*11}\\\\P=\$2906.50

Mr. and Mrs. Bailey need to invest $2906.50 so as to send their son to college.

Find out more on Compound interest at: brainly.com/question/24924853

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Answer:

Commutative property of multiplication

Step-by-step explanation:

This property states that numbers can be switched around when multiplying and the answer still remains the same

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You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
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Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
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