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katrin [286]
3 years ago
12

Find the equation of the line in slope intercept form parallel to 5x−5y=−2 and goes through the point (−10,4) y=?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Feliz [49]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

y = x + 14

Step-by-step explanation:

given

5x−5y=−2, we'll rearrange this into slope - intercept form

5x + 2 = 5y

5y = 5x + 2    (divide both sides by 5)

y = x + (2/5)

recall that the general equation of the slope-intercept form of a linear equation:

y = mx + b, the value of m represents the slope of the line

in our case, comparing the above equations, it is clear that the slope m = 1.

We are given that our line is parallel to the above line, hence it will also have  a slope of 1.

if we substitute m = 1 into the general equation, we will get

y = x + b

in order to find the value of b, we will substitute the given point (-10,4) into the equation:

4 = -10 + b   (add 10 to both sides)

b = 4 + 10

b = 14

hence our equation is y = x + 14

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Pls solve this proportion<br><br> <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B5%7D%7B6%7D" id="TexFormula1" title="\frac{5}{6}"
Nostrana [21]

Answer:

  c = 15/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply both sides of the equation by 9, then reduce the fraction.

  9(5/6) = c

  15/2 = c

_____

<em>Alternate methods</em>

You are usually told to "cross-multiply" which means you multiply the expression by the product of the denominators. this would give you ...

  9(5) = 6(c)

Then you would divide by the coefficient of c to get ...

  (9·5)/6 = c = 15/2

__

Since c is multiplied by 1/9, you can solve this by multiplying by the inverse of that coefficient, 9. That is what is done in the first section above. Usually, this does in one step what the "cross-multiply" method does in 2 steps.

__

The "cross multiply" step can also be done by multiplying by the least common multiple of the denominators, 18. Then you have ...

  18(5/6) = 18(c/9)

  15 = 2c

Now, dividing by the coefficient of c gives ...

  15/2 = c

6 0
4 years ago
Witch of the following numbers is clostest to 6?
Reika [66]
3,2,1,6 are all factors of 6.
6 0
4 years ago
Find the whole.<br> 15% of ___is 12.<br> Explain your method.
pav-90 [236]

Answer:

Its 80

Step-by-step explanation:

80 x 15%=12

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An art shop has 80 large boxes of markers and 34 small boxes of markers in stock. Each large box contains 48 markers and each sm
Pavel [41]

Answer: n= 80 ×48+ 34×20

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Number of large boxes = 80

Number of small boxes = 34

Number of markers in each large box = 48

Number of markers in each small box = 20

Total markers = (Number of large boxes)x (Number of markers in each large box) + (Number of small boxes) x (Number of markers in each small box)

Total number of markers = n (given)

Then, n= 80 ×48+ 34×20

Therefore , the equation could be used to find n, the total number of markers in stock: n= 80 ×48+ 34×20

6 0
3 years ago
A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

P(B' \cup A')

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'

So then we can write the probability like this:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')

And using the complement rule we can do this:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)

Since A and B are independent we have:

P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32

And then our final answer would be:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68

5 0
3 years ago
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