Answer:
-6
Step-by-step explanation:
PLEASE GIVE BRAINLIEST
Answer:
65.3%
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial distribution PMF below (along with a description)
the probabilty of getting 2, 3, or 4 successes in 5 trials is just
p(2)+p(3)+p(4)
p(2)= 5C2*.4²*(1-.4)³ = .3456
p(3)= 5C3*.4³*(1-.4)²= .2304
p(4)= 5C4*.4⁴*(1-.4)=.0768
.3456+.2304+.0768= .6528
The answer is D, 40%. I got it by knowing that 3 and 4 were the success numbers and that 0,1, and 2 were unsuccessful and that numbers 3 and 4 are less than half, so I went with 40% and it was right. Good luck apex! Finish strong!
Well subtract 8 from 1000 and then do that five times. so 992,984,976,968, and 960<span />
Answer:
12 and 12.5
Step-by-step explanation: