1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
vredina [299]
3 years ago
6

What is the final velocity of an object that is dropped if it falls a distance of 100 m?

Physics
1 answer:
Liula [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

44.27m/s

Explanation:

The kinematic equation

v_f^2=v_0^2+2ad

gives the final velocity v_f of the object given the initial velocity v_0, the acceleration a, and the distance traveled d.

For our case, the object is dropped; therefore,

v_0=0

I.e. the initial velocity is zero. The acceleration due to gravity is

a=9.8m/s^2,

and the distance traveled is d=100m.

Putting the values into the equation we get:

v_f^2=0+2(9.8ms^{-2})(100m)\\\\v_f^2=1960\\\\v_f=\sqrt{1960} \\\\\boxed{v_f=44.27m/s}

The final velocity of the object is 44.27 m/s.

You might be interested in
What is inertia?by Walter Levin..<br>​
Tom [10]

Inertia is directly proportional to mass.

What is Walter Lewin famous for?

Walter Hendrik Gustav Lewin (born January 29, 1936) is a Dutch astrophysicist and former professor of physics at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.

Lewin earned his doctorate in nuclear physics in 1965 at the Delft University of Technology and was a member of MIT's physics faculty for 43 years beginning in 1966 until his retirement in 2009.

According to Walter Levin,

The concept of moment of inertia is demonstrated by rolling a series of cylinders down an inclined plane.

Inertia is the resistance of any physical object to a change in its velocity. This includes changes to the object's speed, or direction of motion. An aspect of this property is the tendency of objects to keep moving in a straight line at a constant speed when no forces act upon them.

By rolling a series of cylinders down on an inclined plane , he demonstrated that a cylinder have a smooth friction.

He compares the rolling cylinder by using hollow cylinder and a heavy cylinder , and finalize the result that a hollow cylinder moves slowly but the heavy cylinder move faster.

Hence , By doing this experiment he explained about the inertia that Inertia depend on the mass of the object. As the heavy the object it will take more time to travel or move.

Learn more about inertia here:brainly.com/question/3268780

#SPJ1

7 0
1 year ago
What is projectile motion​
MakcuM [25]

<h2><u>Projectile</u><u> </u><u>motion</u><u>:</u></h2>

<em>If</em><em> </em><em>an</em><em> </em><em>object is given an initial velocity</em><em> </em><em>in any direction and then allowed</em><em> </em><em>to travel freely under gravity</em><em>, </em><em>it</em><em> </em><em>is</em><em> </em><em>called a projectile motion</em><em>. </em>

It is basically 3 types.

  1. horizontally projectile motion
  2. oblique projectile motion
  3. included plane projectile motion

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Are all liquids able to conduct an electric current
Alona [7]

The ions are able to carry electric current through a solution. Some liquids such as oil or alcohol do not form ions and do not conduct electricity. Vinegar is mostly water with a small amount of acetic acid in it. The acetic acid separates into ions on so that the solution conducts electricity.     BRAINLIST ME PEASE

6 0
3 years ago
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
3 years ago
How long does it take the students’ kettle to come to the boil if 3 kg of ice at 0 °C is put in it? The latent heat of fusion of
Alborosie

Answer:

Explanation:

111.333

3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Which of the following substances are NOT formed by chemical bonds?
    14·2 answers
  • a=vf-vi/t is the equation for calculating the acceleration of an object. write out the relationship shown in the equation using
    13·2 answers
  • A basketball referee tosses the ball straight up for the starting tip-off. At what velocity (in m/s) must a basket ball player l
    8·1 answer
  • What power objective lens has the greatest Field of view
    9·1 answer
  • How is heavy water different from normal water
    6·2 answers
  • PL-1) A spring that hangs vertically is 25 cm long when no weight is attached to its lower end. Steve adds 250 g of mass to the
    9·1 answer
  • The cheetah is one of the fastest accelerating animals, for it can go from rest to 34.5 m/s in 3.57 s. If its mass is 112 kg, de
    13·1 answer
  • a hammer of mass 5 kg travelling at 4 metre per second is a nail directly and does not rebound what is the impulse of the hammer
    9·1 answer
  • Deduce an expression for the gravitational potential
    7·1 answer
  • A hockey puck with a mass of 0.17 kg is traveling to the right along the ice at 15 m/s. it strikes a second hockey puck with a m
    11·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!