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irina1246 [14]
3 years ago
12

A company has budgeted fixed overhead of $1.00 per hour at expected capacity of 5,000 units which has a standard quantity of 2 h

ours per unit. The company actually produces 5,200 units and incurred total overhead costs of $12,000. The controllable variance is:__________
Business
1 answer:
Nastasia [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$1,600 Unfavorable

Explanation:

Given that,

Budgeted fixed overhead = $1.00 per hour

Expected capacity = 5,000 units

Standard quantity = 2 hours per unit

Actual units produced = 5,200

Total overhead costs = $12,000

Controllable variance:

= Actual Overhead cost - Budgeted cost of actual production

= $12,000 - (Actual units produced × Budgeted fixed overhead × Standard quantity)

= $12,000 - (5,200 × $1 × 2)

= $12,000 - $10,400

= $1,600 Unfavorable

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Prices usually reflect a. both the value of a good to society and the cost to society of making the good. b. only the cost to so
quester [9]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": both the value of a good to society and the cost to society of making the good.

Explanation:

Price is the monetary value of a good or service that consumers are willing to pay and producers are willing to accept. <em>For companies, it represents the production costs of the good plus the unitary revenue they expect to obtain. For consumers, it is the value they provide to the good offered according to the type of need the good is destined to fulfill.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
In year T, a US citizen buys 100 shares of Sonic on the Tokyo stock exchange at 700 yens each. Suppose the exchange rate then is
zlopas [31]

Answer:

Change in US external wealth between periods T and T +1 in dollars = -$100

Explanation:

Since nothing else changes, this implies that the exchange rate per yen is $0.01 in periods T and T +1. Therefore, we have:

Value shares of Sonic in period T in dollar = Number of shares of Sonic bought in period T * Price per share of Sonic in Yen in period T * Exchange rate per yen in periods T = 100 * 700 * $0.01 = $700

Value shares of Sonic in period T+1 in dollar = Number of shares of Sonic in period T+1 * Price per share of Sonic in Yen in period T+1 * Exchange rate per yen in period T+1 = 100 * 600 * $0.01 = $600

Change in US external wealth between periods T and T +1 in dollars = Value shares of Sonic in period T+1 in dollar - Value shares of Sonic in period T in dollar = $600 - $700 = -$100

4 0
3 years ago
If+the+offering+price+of+an+open-end+fund+is+$12.30+per+share+and+the+fund+is+sold+with+a+front-end+load+of+5%,+what+is+its+net+
Leni [432]

What is Net Asset Value?

Net asset value is the value of an entity's assets less the value of its liabilities, which is frequently used in relation to open-end or mutual funds because shares of such funds registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission are redeemed at net asset value.

Main Content

$11.69

offering price= NAV / (1-load)

12.30=NAV / (1-0.05)

12.30=NAV / (0.95)

12.30 x 0.95 = NAV

NAV= 11.69

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2 years ago
Manhattan Developers, Inc., pays Northeast Trust Company to release its claim to a strip of waterfront property. Northeast gives
soldier1979 [14.2K]

"Manhattan Developers, Inc., pays Northeast Trust Company to release its claim to a strip..." this is a quitclaim deed. This is further explained below.

<h3>What is a deed?</h3>

Generally, the deed is simply defined as Legal documents that are signed and delivered, particularly those that deal with property or legal rights.

In conclusion, When a company pays another company to relinquish a claim to a strip mine, it is executing a quitclaim deed.

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5 0
2 years ago
On July 1, Year 1, Danzer Industries Inc. issued $40,000,000 of 10-year, 7% bonds at a market (effective) interest rate of 8%, r
sammy [17]

Answer:

1. Journalize the entry to record the amount of cash proceeds from the issuance of the bonds on July 1, Year 1.

Dr Cash 37,282,062

Dr Discount on bonds payable 2,717,938

    Cr Bonds payable 40,000,000

2. Journalize the entries to record the following:

a. The first semiannual interest payment on December 31, Year 1, and the amortization of the bond discount, using the straight-line method. Round to the nearest dollar.

discount on bonds payable = 2,717,938 / 20 coupons = $135,896.90

December 31, Year 1, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 1,535,896.90

    Cr Cash 1,400,000

    Cr Discount on bonds payable 135,896.90

b. The interest payment on June 30, Year 2, and the amortization of the bond discount,using the straight-line method. Round to the nearest dollar.

June 30, Year 2, second coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 1,535,896.90

    Cr Cash 1,400,000

    Cr Discount on bonds payable 135,896.90

3. Determine the total interest expense for Year 1.

$1,535,896.90

4. Will the bond proceeds always be less than the face amount of the bonds when the contract rate is less than the market rate of interest?

yes, if the market rate is higher than the coupon rate, the bonds will sell at a discount.

5. (Appendix 1) Compute the price of $37,282,062 received for the bonds by using the present value tables in Appendix A at the end of the text. Round to the nearest dollar.

bond price = PV of face value + PV of coupon payments

  • PV of face value = $40,000,000 x 0.4564 (PV factor, 4%, 20 periods) = $18,256,000
  • PV of coupon payments = $1,400,000 x 13.590 (PV annuity factor, 4%, 20 periods) = $19,026,000

bond's market price = $18,256,000 + $19,026,000 = $37,282,000

6 0
3 years ago
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