Answer:
1, 2, 3
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
a = 14.73
Step-by-step explanation:
This ratio can also be written like this:

Then you can cross multiply to get
11a = 6 x 27
11a = 162
Divide both sides by 11
11a / 11 = 162 / 11
a = 14.73
X=invested at 10%12000-x=invested at 15% .10x+ (.15)(12000-x)=1440 ;; 12% of the total amount is 12% of $12000. .10x + 1800-.15x=1440
-0.05x=-360x=7200 12000-x=4800 $7200 at 10%=$720$4800 at 15%=$720 That is $12000 earning $1440, and that is 12%
i would say c is the best answer or the 3rd one
Answer:
Multiple answers
Step-by-step explanation:
The original urns have:
- Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
- Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips
We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:
The probability of take a red one is :
(2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))
For a white one is:
(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))
Then we put this chip into the second urn:
We have two possible cases:
- First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
- Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips
If we select a chip from the urn two:
- In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:
= 40% ( 2 whites of 5 chips) - In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:
= 20% ( 1 whites of 5 chips)
This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.
For the fist case we multiply :
x
=
= 26.66% (
the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1,
the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)
For the second case we multiply:
x
=
= .06% (
the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1,
the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)