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BartSMP [9]
3 years ago
6

Scientific knowledge builds upon previous knowledge."

Physics
1 answer:
notka56 [123]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Magic

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Please help wil give brainiest & 40p.
dexar [7]

Answer:

This is the answer

Explanation:

You can find the ans in the photo I attached.

3 0
3 years ago
Why does a magnet attract a steel nail
SVEN [57.7K]

Answer:

The nail will stick to the bar magnet because it will become magnetized, and it's metal. The presence of the nearby north pole rearranges the magnetic domains inside the steel so that their south poles all point toward the north pole of the permanent magnet. As a result, the other end of the nail becomes a north pole.Magnets attract iron due to the influence of their magnetic field upon the iron. ... When exposed to the magnetic field, the atoms begin to align their electrons with the flow of the magnetic field, which makes the iron magnetized as well. This, in turn, creates an attraction between the two magnetized objects.

7 0
3 years ago
Technician A says that front bearing assembly locknuts for RWD vehicles are typically heavily torqued to maintain the bearing ad
Burka [1]

Answer:

B. Technician B

Explanation:

The statement made by Technician A is not right because for an RWD vehicles, its front bearing assembly is not used for sustaining the bearing adjustment. The statement made by the Technician B is right because the main reason for staking the bearing assembly of the wheel of a FWD vehicle is to ensure that the torque is at a specific value. Thus, only Technician B is correct.

7 0
3 years ago
The engine in an imaginary sports car can provide constant power to the wheels over a range of speeds from 0 to 70 miles per hou
kirill115 [55]

Answer:

Part A

it would take 6 sec

it would take 3 sec

Explanation:

We are told that the power supplied to the wheel is constant which means that the sport car is gaining energy i.e

                           power \ \alpha  \ energy

Hence if power is constantly supplied energy constantly increase

From the formula of the Kinetic energy

                       KE  = \frac{1}{2} mv^2

we can see that as the speed doubles from 29 mph  to 58 mph  the energy needed is 2^2 = 4 times of the energy from the formula

   Also the time needed would also be 4 times because energy i directly proportional to time

       Hence to reach 58mph the time that it would take is

                          = 4* 1.5sec = 6sec

     

We are told that the ground pushes the car  with a constant force and

                 F = ma

this means that the acceleration is also constant

             now from newtons law

     v = u +at  

 Looking at it we see that final velocity is directly proportional with time

hence it would take twice the time to reach twice the final velocity

        Time to reach 58mph = 3 s

        since time to reach 29 mph(\frac{1}{2} \ of \ [58mph]) =( \frac{1}{2} \ of \ 3sec )1.5 s

6 0
3 years ago
What is <br> 0.02204 in scientific notation
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

2.204x10^2 -2 = 0.02204 in scientific notation.

4 0
3 years ago
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