Answer:
MMM
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
See attachment for elements of the sample space (in a probability tree)
Required
Which of MMM, FFM, MFF, FMF represents more than one male?
From the question, we understand that:
So, for an event to represent more than 1 male, there must be an occurrence of at least 2 M (i.e 2 M or 3 M)
From the given options, only MMM has more than 1 M.
Hence, MMM represents more than one Male
The interest figure always means the interest for a year.
120 days is 1/3 of a year, so you'll only earn 1/3 of 6.5% .
6.5% = 0.065
1/3 of that is 0.02167 .
(0.02167) x (7,000) = 151.67
Answer:
70
Step-by-step explanation:
By exterior angle theorem:
Answer:
The probability is 0.173
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability is of winning is 0.75 = 75/100 = 3/4
This means that the probability of losing is 0.25 = 25/100 = 1/4
So if they are two win 4 games, they will lose three
We can get this probability using the Bernoulli approximation of the binomial theorem
So here, we have
P(X = 4) = 7 C 4 * 0.75^4 * 0.25^3
= 0.173034667969
which is approximately 0.1730
Answer:
<h2>
168°</h2>
Option A is the correct option
Step-by-step explanation:
Since, we know that angle at center is double that of the circumference.
JL = 2 × 84°
calculate the product
= 168°
Hope this helps..
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