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Nutka1998 [239]
3 years ago
12

Kgms^-1 ÷ m× (ms^-1)^2 Can u simplify this

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ymorist [56]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(kgm^2) / (s^3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Comment if you want steps.

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I think its 6 but im not sure to be exactly right
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To which sets of numbers - 1/4 does<br> belong?
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Where are the sets? I don't see any...

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2 years ago
Solve: -6 (-2)÷4(-3)
Katen [24]

Answer:

-9

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify the following:

-6×(-2)/4 (-3)

-6×(-2)/4 (-3) = (-6 (-2) (-3))/4:

(-6 (-2) (-3))/4

The gcd of -2 and 4 is 2, so (-6 (-2) (-3))/4 = (-6 (2 (-1)) (-3))/(2×2) = 2/2×(-6 (-1) (-3))/2 = (-6 (-1) (-3))/2:

(-6-1 (-3))/2

(-6)/2 = (2 (-3))/2 = -3:

--3 (-3)

-3 (-1) = 3:

3 (-3)

3 (-3) = -9:

Answer: -9

6 0
3 years ago
The boundary of a lamina consists of the semicircles y = 1 − x2 and y = 16 − x2 together with the portions of the x-axis that jo
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

Required center of mass (\bar{x},\bar{y})=(\frac{2}{\pi},0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given semcircles are,

y=\sqrt{1-x^2}, y=\sqrt{16-x^2} whose radious are 1 and 4 respectively.

To find center of mass, (\bar{x},\bar{y}), let density at any point is \rho and distance from the origin is r be such that,

\rho=\frac{k}{r} where k is a constant.

Mass of the lamina=m=\int\int_{D}\rho dA where A is the total region and D is curves.

then,

m=\int\int_{D}\rho dA=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}\frac{k}{r}rdrd\theta=k\int_{}^{}(4-1)d\theta=3\pi k

  • Now, x-coordinate of center of mass is \bar{y}=\frac{M_x}{m}. in polar coordinate y=r\sin\theta

\therefore M_x=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}x\rho(x,y)dA

=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}\frac{k}{r}(r)\sin\theta)rdrd\theta

=k\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}r\sin\thetadrd\theta

=3k\int_{0}^{\pi}\sin\theta d\theta

=3k\big[-\cos\theta\big]_{0}^{\pi}

=3k\big[-\cos\pi+\cos 0\big]

=6k

Then, \bar{y}=\frac{M_x}{m}=\frac{2}{\pi}

  • y-coordinate of center of mass is \bar{x}=\frac{M_y}{m}. in polar coordinate x=r\cos\theta

\therefore M_y=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}x\rho(x,y)dA

=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}\frac{k}{r}(r)\cos\theta)rdrd\theta

=k\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}r\cos\theta drd\theta

=3k\int_{0}^{\pi}\cos\theta d\theta

=3k\big[\sin\theta\big]_{0}^{\pi}

=3k\big[\sin\pi-\sin 0\big]

=0

Then, \bar{x}=\frac{M_y}{m}=0

Hence center of mass (\bar{x},\bar{y})=(\frac{2}{\pi},0)

3 0
3 years ago
Match each expression to its equivalent standard form
pogonyaev
Move the first one to the bottom,then the second to the top ans you will know where to put the rest
8 0
3 years ago
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