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WINSTONCH [101]
4 years ago
11

Dan invests £13000 into his bank account. He receives 4% per year simple interest. How much will Dan have after 6 years? Give yo

ur answer to the nearest penny where appropriate.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Feliz [49]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

16120

Step-by-step explanation:

0.04 x 6 = 0.24   (Simple Interest)

1 + 0.24 = 1.24     (Total interest)

13000 * 1.24 = 16120

Hope this helped.

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Multiply :-4 4\2 •2 6\5 and write the result in simplest form.....
atroni [7]
What i like to do is, start with (),
-4(4/2) x 2(6/5) 
then pemdas
so p is first
-4(2) x 2(1.2)
then multiply
-8 x 2.4
that equals
=-19.2
7 0
4 years ago
I just want to go to bed so can someone help me with this question
user100 [1]

Answer:

A. 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Following order of operations, you would multiply 4/3 and 3/5.

Once you do this, you will get 12/15, which you can simplify to 4/5

Then you add the 1/5 with the 4/5 and you will get 5/5, which is equivalent to 1

7 0
3 years ago
write a compound inequality that represents the situation. all real numbers that are greater than –6 but less than 6 a. –6 ≤ x &
natali 33 [55]
<span>All real numbers that are greater than –6 but less than 6 is written as -6 < x < 6</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Contestants on a game show spin a wheel with 242424 equally-sized segments. Most of those segments show different prize amounts,
ycow [4]

Using the principle of probability, the probability that the outcome of both spins does not land on "<em>bankrupt</em><em>"</em><em> </em>is 1/144

<u>Given</u><u> </u><u>the</u><u> </u><u>Parameters</u><u> </u><u>:</u>

  • Total Number of possible outcomes = 24
  • Number of outcomes labeled bankrupt = 2
  • Labels which aren't labeled bankrupt = 24 - 2 = 22

<u>Recall</u><u> </u><u>:</u>

  • P(A) = <em>required</em><em> </em><em>outcome</em><em> </em><em>/</em><em> </em><em>Total</em><em> </em><em>possible outcomes</em><em> </em>

<u>First</u><u> </u><u>spin</u><u> </u><u>:</u>

  • P(not bankrupt) = 2 / 24 = 1/12

<u>Second</u><u> </u><u>spin</u><u> </u><u>:</u>

  • P(not bankrupt) = 2/24 = 1/12

P(<em>neither</em><em> </em><em>lands</em><em> </em><em>on</em><em> </em><em>bankrupt</em><em>)</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em>1/12 × 1/12 = 1/144

Therefore, the probability that neither lands on bankrupt is 1/144

Learn more : brainly.com/question/18405415

3 0
2 years ago
What are the zeros of P(m) = (m2 – 4)(m2 + 1)?
devlian [24]

Answer:

m=4, -1

Step-by-step explanation:

if i am interpreting this correctly, you are wanting to find at what value of m would the solution be zero.

so, there are two expressions that can cause an answer of 0.

1) if 0=m2-4

so solve for m2, and you get 4=m2

2) if 0=m2+1

solve for m2, and you get -1=m2

you can check your work by plugging the values back into the equation.

P(m)=(4-4)(4+1)

=(0)(5)

=0

and

P(m)=(-1-4)(-1+1)

=(5)(0)

=0

5 0
3 years ago
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