Answer: The correct answer is "b. debit Cash and Accumulated Depreciation; credit Machinery, and Gain on Disposal".
Explanation: When a company exchanges machinery and receives a trade-in allowance greater than the book value, this transaction would be recorded with:
----------------------------------- . --------------------------------------------
Cash xxxx
Accumulated depreciation xxxx
Machinery xxxx
Gain on disposal xxxx
---------------------------------- . -----------------------------------------------
Cash is debited because the asset increase must be recorded, for the money entered for the sale.
The accumulated depreciation is debited to the fact that since the machinery leaves the estate, the account must be canceled.
Machinery is credited because when leaving the estate the account must be canceled.
"Gain on disposal" is credited as being an account of the positive result produced by the difference between the money received and the book value of the machinery.
Its B <span>a type of loan used to buy property</span>
The team leader could be informed of this through an anonymous letter perhaps.
Explanation:
Any team leader who is polite and understanding with their team while getting the job done is usually an asset to the team.
<u>however, too much leeway would also mean that the workers become alx and do not listen to their leaders.</u>
<u>In this case this is happening indirectly because the clerks enjoy talking to their leader and use up their working hours doing that.</u>
Working hours are precious for the firm and this actually decreases the productivity.
The team leader can simply be informed anonymously that members have noticed this happening and want her to correct it.
Answer:
The maximum amount that an onvestor would be willing to pay for the stock today is $76.47
Explanation:
The constant growth model of the dividend growth adn DDM aproach will be used to calcualte the value of the stock as its dividends will grow by a constant percentage forever.
The price of the stock today based on this model will be,
P0 = D1 / r - g
Where,
D1 is the dividend expected for next year
r is the required rate of return
g is the growth rate in dividends
P0 = 5.2 / (0.14 - 0.072)
P0 = $76.47
Answer: i feel as if this is a trick question, but i think the answer is A.
Explanation: