Answer:
Mark will have $19,878.70 at the end of six years
Explanation:
Use the following formula to calculate the present value of cash flows
PV = ![A [\frac{1 - (\frac{1+g}{1+r})^n }{r - g} ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=A%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%20-%20%28%5Cfrac%7B1%2Bg%7D%7B1%2Br%7D%29%5En%20%7D%7Br%20-%20g%7D%20%5D)
Where
A = Investment = $2,000
g = growth rate = 4%
r = 15%
n = 6
Placing values in the formula
PV = ![2,000 [\frac{1 - (\frac{1+0.06}{1+0.15})^6 }{0.15 - 0.06} ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=2%2C000%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%20-%20%28%5Cfrac%7B1%2B0.06%7D%7B1%2B0.15%7D%29%5E6%20%7D%7B0.15%20-%200.06%7D%20%5D)
PV = $8,594.11
Now calculate the future value in order to determine the amount Mark will have at the ned of six years
Future value = 
Where
PV = $8,594.11
r = 15%
n = 6
Placing values in the formula
Future value = 
Future value = $19,878.70
Answer:
the yield to maturity is 5.77%
Explanation:
The computation of the yield to maturity is shown below:
Given that
FV = $1,000
PV = $431
PMT = $0
NPER = 15
The formula is shown below:
= RATE(NPER,PMT,-PV,FV,TYPE)
After applying the above formula, the rate of interest is 5.77%
Hence, the yield to maturity is 5.77%
Answer:
$7,560
Explanation:
Calculation for the amount to be recorded as depreciation expense at December 31, 2017
Depreciation expense =( $116,800- $16,000 )
Depreciation expense = $100,800
Depreciation expense =$100,800 / 10 years
Depreciation expense = $10,080
Depreciation expense = 10,080 * (9/12)
Depreciation expense = $7,560
Therefore the amount to be recorded as depreciation expense at December 31, 2017 is $7,560
A
Explanation:
Because the judgement of executives does not adequately factor into a mathematical equation. it's like a judgement call only whereas the others can be used in an equation manner
Answer: The answer is provided below
Explanation:
a). The revenue here shows that
Wendover's patients were capitated. The is because the actual revenue figures were assumed to be $180, but it
later came to $300 which means that the revenue increased.
The reason is that a capitated patient provides fixed payment a year, while a fee for service client pays per usage. With this explanation, it can be concluded that majority of Wendover's patients are fee for service because the difference between static results and the actual results is very high.
) 1. Revenue variance
= Actual Revenues - Static budget
= $ 300 - $ 425
= - $125
2. Volume variance
= Flexible Revenue - Static Budget
= $ 200 - $ 425
= - $ 225
3. Price Variance
= Actual Revenues - Flexible Revenues
=$300 - $200
= $100
4. Enrollment variance
= Flexible Revenues - Static Budget
= $ 180 - $ 425
= - $ 245
5. Utilization variance
= Flexible Revenue- Flexible Budget
= $ 200 - $ 180
= $ 20