Journal entries
A.
Dr Cash $6,871.50
DrCash Exceed and Short $50.75
Cr Sales Revenue ($6,871.50+ 50.85) $6,922.25
B.
Dr Cash ($6,922.25 +28.32) $6,950.57
Cr Sales Revenue $6,922.25
Cr Cash Exceed and Short $28.32
Answer: True
Explanation: The matching principle is used to compute capitalized costs by companies and it records expenses in the same period as the related revenues by matching the cost of an asset to the time periods in which it is used, and is therefore generating revenue.
Capitalized cost is also given as the present worth of cash flows which go on for an infinite period of time. In other words, the worth of cash flows does not leave the company when items are purchased. This is because the monetary value is retained in the form of a fixed or intangible asset.
The capitalized cost of any investment can be determined using the equation, P = A/i. Where P is the capitalized cost, A is the annual amount and i is the interest rate.
Answer:
yes it makes.although it doesn't buy love and affection. it fulfills our need which makes us happy.
Outsourcing is so sophisticated that even core functions such as engineering, research and development, manufacturing, information technology, and marketing can be moved outside the firm.
The practice of employing a third party from outside a business to carry out tasks or produce commodities that were previously completed in-house by the business's own employees and personnel is known as outsourcing. Companies typically engage in outsourcing as a cost-cutting strategy.
The outside business, often referred to as the network operator or third-party provider, makes arrangements for its own personnel or technological resources to carry out the duties or offer the services either on-site at the premises of the hiring business or at other places.
To learn more about outsourcing click here:
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Answer:
101.12 million
Explanation:
<em>The present value of a future cash flow is the amount that can be invested today at a particular rate for a certain number of years to have the future cash flow </em>
The present value of the liability
= FV × (1+r)^(-n)
= 800 × (1.09)^(-24)
= 101.12 million
The present value of this liability= 101.12 million
