There would be 80 women.
Here's the work:
120 divided by 3 = 40
If the ratio is 3:2, there is always one less woman then men, so you subtract the 40 men in a group and you get your answer of 80
Hope I helped!! :)
Answer:
F(t) = 10 +5t
Step-by-step explanation:
Income equals the initial fee plus the hours worked times the hourly rate
We know the initial fee = 10
hours = t
hourly rate =r
F(t) = 10 + r*t
We know a 5 hour job is 35 dollars
35 = 10 + r*5
Subtract 10 from each side
35-10 = 10-10 +5r
25 = 5r
Divide by 5
25/5 = 5r/5
5 =r
The hourly rate is 5
F(t) = 10 +5t
Answer:
1/26
Step-by-step explanation:
There are 4 Jacks in every deck of cards, one for each suit. Therefore your chances of drawing a Jack, or any other card for that matter, are 4 in 52. So, the first probability for cards is 4/52.
Now, for the coin, the probability is 1/2.
So, the probability of getting Jack and hits is 4/52 X 1/2 = 1/26.
W=-5 because you distribute at the beginning with the 2 variables and you solve that's equation and you will end up with 6w divided by 30 and that's will give u W=-5
