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Galina-37 [17]
3 years ago
14

How can the Pythagorean Identity be used to find sin θ, cos θ, or tan θ and the quadrant location of the angle?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Archy [21]3 years ago
5 0

First lets see the pythagorean identities

sin^2 \Theta + cos^2 \Theta =1

So if we have to solve for sin theta , first we move cos theta to left side and then take square root to both sides, that is

sin^2 \Theta = 1-cos^2 \Theta => sin \theta = \pm \sqrt{1-cos^2 \Theta}

Now we need to check the sign of sin theta

First we have to remember the sign of sin, cos , tan in the quadrants. In first quadrant , all are positive. In second quadrant, only sin and cosine are positive. In third quadrant , only tan and cot are positive and in the last quadrant , only cos and sec are positive.

So if theta is in second quadrant, then we have to positive sign but if theta is in third or fourth quadrant, then we have to use negative sign .

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Gabriel wants to send a parcel to Italy.
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Multi-Step Max's school bought boxes of
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(x^2y+e^x)dx-x^2dy=0
klio [65]

It looks like the differential equation is

\left(x^2y + e^x\right) \,\mathrm dx - x^2\,\mathrm dy = 0

Check for exactness:

\dfrac{\partial\left(x^2y+e^x\right)}{\partial y} = x^2 \\\\ \dfrac{\partial\left(-x^2\right)}{\partial x} = -2x

As is, the DE is not exact, so let's try to find an integrating factor <em>µ(x, y)</em> such that

\mu\left(x^2y + e^x\right) \,\mathrm dx - \mu x^2\,\mathrm dy = 0

*is* exact. If this modified DE is exact, then

\dfrac{\partial\left(\mu\left(x^2y+e^x\right)\right)}{\partial y} = \dfrac{\partial\left(-\mu x^2\right)}{\partial x}

We have

\dfrac{\partial\left(\mu\left(x^2y+e^x\right)\right)}{\partial y} = \left(x^2y+e^x\right)\dfrac{\partial\mu}{\partial y} + x^2\mu \\\\ \dfrac{\partial\left(-\mu x^2\right)}{\partial x} = -x^2\dfrac{\partial\mu}{\partial x} - 2x\mu \\\\ \implies \left(x^2y+e^x\right)\dfrac{\partial\mu}{\partial y} + x^2\mu = -x^2\dfrac{\partial\mu}{\partial x} - 2x\mu

Notice that if we let <em>µ(x, y)</em> = <em>µ(x)</em> be independent of <em>y</em>, then <em>∂µ/∂y</em> = 0 and we can solve for <em>µ</em> :

x^2\mu = -x^2\dfrac{\mathrm d\mu}{\mathrm dx} - 2x\mu \\\\ (x^2+2x)\mu = -x^2\dfrac{\mathrm d\mu}{\mathrm dx} \\\\ \dfrac{\mathrm d\mu}{\mu} = -\dfrac{x^2+2x}{x^2}\,\mathrm dx \\\\ \dfrac{\mathrm d\mu}{\mu} = \left(-1-\dfrac2x\right)\,\mathrm dx \\\\ \implies \ln|\mu| = -x - 2\ln|x| \\\\ \implies \mu = e^{-x-2\ln|x|} = \dfrac{e^{-x}}{x^2}

The modified DE,

\left(e^{-x}y + \dfrac1{x^2}\right) \,\mathrm dx - e^{-x}\,\mathrm dy = 0

is now exact:

\dfrac{\partial\left(e^{-x}y+\frac1{x^2}\right)}{\partial y} = e^{-x} \\\\ \dfrac{\partial\left(-e^{-x}\right)}{\partial x} = e^{-x}

So we look for a solution of the form <em>F(x, y)</em> = <em>C</em>. This solution is such that

\dfrac{\partial F}{\partial x} = e^{-x}y + \dfrac1{x^2} \\\\ \dfrac{\partial F}{\partial y} = e^{-x}

Integrate both sides of the first condition with respect to <em>x</em> :

F(x,y) = -e^{-x}y - \dfrac1x + g(y)

Differentiate both sides of this with respect to <em>y</em> :

\dfrac{\partial F}{\partial y} = -e^{-x}+\dfrac{\mathrm dg}{\mathrm dy} = e^{-x} \\\\ \implies \dfrac{\mathrm dg}{\mathrm dy} = 0 \implies g(y) = C

Then the general solution to the DE is

F(x,y) = \boxed{-e^{-x}y-\dfrac1x = C}

5 0
3 years ago
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