Answer:
The option (B) Debit Work in Process Inventory $72.000 credit Factory Wages Payable $172,000 is correct
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
As the cost of labor was sustained as regards to processing the inventory and it was not completed, so debit the work in process of account.
There also exits a liability of paying labor charges for this it will be payable.
Hence credit factory wages payable.
For the other options they are crediting cash which is not yet paid, here the option A and E is wrong.
For option D, they are crediting inventory which in this case is not correct due to the existence of a liability for paying labor fees.
The option D is wrong, because they debited with the cost of sold goods.
Answer:
u can use quillbot.com
Explanation:
it makes a few sentences into a lot giving a whole article on something off of a few sentences u write
Answer:
<em>(A) Unit variable costs fluctuate and unit fixed costs remain constant.</em>
Explanation:
The <em>fixed costs</em> are the costs which have to be incurred always, irrespective of what the output produced is by the firm. For instance, a firm always has to charge depreciation on its fixed assets, pay salary to the premises staff and pay fixed salary to the managers for managing etc, irrespective of whatever output it produces.
<em>Variable costs</em> are the costs which vary with the level of output produced activity. For example, if more output is produced more will be the raw material payments, more will be the manufacturing related other expenses and more will be the wages paid to the labour etc and vice-versa.
Hence, thereby the per <em>unit variable costs fluctuate and unit fixed costs remain constant.</em>
Answer:
Sam change: -5.13%
Dave change -18.01%
Explanation:
If interest rate increase by 2%
then the YTM of the bond will be 9.3%
We need eto calcualte the present value of the coupon and maturity of the bond at this new rate:
<em><u>For the coupon payment we use the formula for ordinary annuity</u></em>
Coupon payment: 1,000 x 7.3% / 2 payment per year: 36.50
time 6 (3 years x 2 payment per year)
YTM seiannual: 0.0465 (9.3% annual /2 = 4.65% semiannual)
PV $187.3546
<u><em>For the maturity we calculate usign the lump sum formula:</em></u>
Maturity: $ 1,000.00
time: 6 payment
rate: 0.0465
PV 761.32
Now, we add both together:
PV coupon $187.3546 + PV maturity $761.3154 = $948.6700
now we calcualte the change in percentage:
948.67/1,000 - 1 = -0.051330026 = -5.13
For Dave we do the same:
C 36.50
time 40
rate 0.0465
PV $657.5166
Maturity 1,000.00
time 40.00
rate 0.0465
PV 162.34
PV c $657.5166
PV m $162.3419
Total $819.8585
Change:
819.86 / 1,000 - 1 = -0.180141521 = -18.01%
Answer:
It distorts relative prices, causing a misallocation of resources.
Explanation: Inflation is an economic term used to describe a situation in a country's market when there is a sudden rise in commodities sold in the market. Inflation can be as a result of an increase in demand of commodities sold in the market.
It has a negative effect, when the prices are distorted and the purchasing power is not properly allocated to the buyers.