Answer:
a
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.
Answer:
x=20
Step-by-step explanation:
x - 5 = 15
x +5 = +5
x = 20
Ngl I think it’s 20 because 15 is 5x3 but 60 divided by 3=20 lmk if I’m wrong