In trying to make sense of FDR's domestic policies, historians and political scientists have referred to a "First New Deal," which lasted from 1933 to 1935, and a "Second New Deal," which stretched from 1935 to 1938. (Some scholars believe that a "Third New Deal" began in 1937 but never took root; the descriptor, likewise, has never gained significant currency.) These terms, it should be remembered, are the creations of scholars trying to impose order and organization on the Roosevelt administration's often chaotic, confusing, and contradictory attempts to combat the depression; Roosevelt himself never used them. The idea of a "first "and "second" New Deal is useful insofar as it reflects important shifts in the Roosevelt administration's approach to the nation's economic and social woes. But the boundaries between the first and second New Deals should be viewed as porous rather than concrete. In other words, significant continuities existed between the first and second New Deals that should not be overlooked.
If my memory serves me well, correct answer looks like this: Political reforms made during the <span>progressive</span> era of the early 1900s this time included development of party primaries and women’s suffrage.
Answer:
Octavian
Explanation:
After Caesar's assassination in 44BC, Octavian was named as the heir to the
Roman Empire. He was only 19 at the time
No! they have to go through congress first and then you can find the balance from the Congress court.
Based on the statement, it could mean that the writer of the
one who made the statement does not think that political parties have the
chances of winning and in the same time, they are likely to cause more harm
than to cause something good.
