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kompoz [17]
3 years ago
12

A crate is given a quick push at the bottom of a loading ramp. The box slides up the ramp, and then slides back down. If there i

s friction with the ramp (as there always is) which takes longer, the slide up the ramp or the slide back down?
Physics
1 answer:
tamaranim1 [39]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The slide back down takes longer than the slide up.

Explanation:

In this is problem, the loss of energy is a key factor.

When the box is pushed up the ramp, it gains a specific speed, and an associated kinetic energy<em>. </em>As it slides up, it losses kinetic energy due to the gravitational and frictional forces, and it is transformed to gravitational potential energy (or potential energy). When it reaches its highest point, the speed becomes cero and all its kinetic energy is converted to potential energy.

However, since there is a frictional force, some amount of energy is loss, so the potential energy is lesser than the initial kinetic energy.

The same occurs when the box slides back down: its potential energy is converted into kinetic energy, but some energy is loss due to the frictional force. This means that the final kinetic energy is smaller than the initial, which implies that its final velocity is smaller than the initial velocity.

Using the acceleration definition:

a=\frac{v_f-v_o}{t}

We solve for the time (t) and get:

t=\frac{v_f-v_o}{a}

We have to use this equation two times, one for each movement  (slide up and slide down).

The gravitational force points down with the same magnitude in both, but the frictional force goes down when the box is sliding up and it goes up when the box slides down. So the magnitude of the acceleration when it goes up is smaller than the other one.

If we analyze both situations:

A) When it goes up:

t_{up}=-\frac{v_o}{a_1}

B) When it goes down:

t_{down}=\frac{v_f}{a_2}

And we have that v_o>v_f and a_1. Which implies that, in any case, t_{up}>t_{down}.

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Assume you are going to race the three objects (hollow sphere, disk and ring used in Experiment 8.2) by releasing them from rest
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Answer:

a. The disk

b. Because it has the smallest rotational inertia

Explanation:

a. Which object do you expect to reach the bottom of the inclined plan first?

I would expect the disk to reach the bottom first.

b. Why?

This is because the disk has the smallest rotational inertia.

The rotational inertial of the hollow sphere, disk and ring are 2/3MR², 1/2MR² and MR² respectively.

Since the three objects are rolling from the same height, they have the same mechanical energy.

But, since the disk has the smallest rotational inertia, it would have the smallest rotational kinetic energy and largest translational kinetic energy.  The disk's smaller rotational kinetic energy will cause  to rotate less but translate more than the other objects and thus reach the bottom first.

7 0
3 years ago
What law explains why a collapsing cloud usually forms a protostellar disk around a protostar?.
NemiM [27]
Your answer is conservation of angular momentum.

Explanation: quizlet!
6 0
3 years ago
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A simple pendulum has a period of 3.45 second, when the length of the pendulum is shortened by 1.0m, the period is 2.81 second c
den301095 [7]

Answer:

Original length = 2.97 m

Explanation:

Let the original length of the pendulum be 'L' m

Given:

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²

Original time period of the pendulum (T) = 3.45 s

Now, the length is shortened by 1.0 m. So, the new length is 1 m less than the original length.

New length of the pendulum is, L_1=L-1

New time period of the pendulum is, T_1=2.81\ s

We know that, the time period of a simple pendulum of length 'L' is given as:

T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}-------------- (1)

So, for the new length, the time period is given as:

T_1=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L_1}{g}}------------ (2)

Squaring both the equations and then dividing them, we get:

\dfrac{T^2}{T_1^2}=\dfrac{(2\pi)^2\frac{L}{g}}{(2\pi)^2\frac{L_1}{g}}\\\\\\\dfrac{T^2}{T_1^2}=\dfrac{L}{L_1}\\\\\\L=\dfrac{T^2}{T_1^2}\times L_1

Now, plug in the given values and calculate 'L'. This gives,

L=\frac{3.45^2}{2.81^2}\times (L-1)\\\\L=1.507L-1.507\\\\L-1.507L=-1.507\\\\-0.507L=-1.507\\\\L=\frac{-1.507}{-0.507}=2.97\ m

Therefore, the original length of the simple pendulum is 2.97 m

4 0
3 years ago
Help please i need it asap
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

B, because if u subtract the forces from each other the forward one outweights the other ones

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