A) the probability is 1 in 6 (1/6); there are six numbers and only one is 6, therefore 1 in 6
B) the probability is 5 in 6 (5/6); there are 6 numbers and only one is not 6, therefore 5 in 6
C) the probability of rolling a 6 is 1 in 6 and the probability of not rolling a 6 is 5 in 6
D) the probability is again 1 in 6 (1/6); 120 divided by 6 is 20, and 20/120 simplifies to 1/6
thats the best i can do to explain
Answer:
146
Step-by-step explanation:
j=3 13 = 39
g=5 13 = 65
a=4 13 = 42
Answer:the correct answer is C
Step-by-step explanation:
If it is, then you can solve the equation by taking the square root of both sides of the equation. ... Next, if the coefficient of the squared term is 1 and the coefficient of the linear (middle) term is even, completing the square is a good method to use. Finally, the quadratic formula will work on any quadratic equation
Answer:
1. $37.70 of interest
2. Jeans Junction
Step-by-step explanation:
1. For simple interest, we use the equation
where
- P is the principle or starting value
- A is the total amount after interest and a period of time
- r is the rate at which interest gathers as a decimal
- t the time in years.
For this problem, we know P=$580, r=6.5%=0.065, t=1 year. We substitute into the formula and simplify to find the total amount A.

Using this total amount we can subtract the original principle to find the amount of interest.
617.7-580=$37.70 of interest
2. Jeans Plus sells jeans for $25 a pair At regular price, if I bought 3 I would spend 3j=s(25)=$75 and then received $10 off. SO I would spend $65 total.
Jeans Junction also sells jeans for $25 and will give me 15% off. This means I would pay 85% or 0.85 of the price (100-15=85). So if I buy 3, I would spend 3j=3(250=75. Then I can multiply 75(0.85)=63.75. This is the better deal because I spend less.