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Scorpion4ik [409]
3 years ago
13

B) Mrs. Shakya sold a jewellery at a loss of 5%. If she had sold it at Rs 5,200 more,

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nadusha1986 [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

\huge{ \fbox{ \sf{Rs \: 40000}}}

Step-by-step explanation:

\sf{Let \: CP \: ( \: cost \: price) \: be \: x}

\sf{Loss \: \% \:  = 5  \% \: }

\sf{Selling \: price = CP \:  -  \: loss \: \% \: of \: CP}

\mapsto{ \sf  x -  \frac{5}{100}  \times x}

\mapsto{ \sf{x -  \frac{x}{20} }}

\mapsto{ \sf{  \frac{x \times 20 - x}{20} }}

\mapsto{ \sf{ \frac{20x - x}{20}}}

\mapsto{ \sf{ \frac{19x}{20}}}

Now, Finding the New selling price

\sf{New \: SP \: ( \: selling \: price)} =  \frac{19x}{20}  + 5200

\mapsto{ \sf{ \frac{19x + 5200 \times 20}{20}}}

\mapsto{ \sf{ \frac{19x + 10400}{20}}}

Finally, finding the Cost price :

We have, Profit % = 8 %

\sf{Cost \: price = Selling \: price \:  -  \: P\% \: of \: CP}

\mapsto{ \sf{x =  \frac{19x + 104000}{20}  - 8\% \: of \: x}}

\mapsto{ \sf{x =  \frac{19x + 104000}{20}  -  \frac{8x}{100} }}

\mapsto{ \sf{x =  \frac{19x + 104000}{20}  -  \frac{2x}{25} }}

\mapsto{ \sf{x =  \frac{5(19x + 104000) - 2x \times 4}{100} }}

\mapsto{ \sf{x =  \frac{95x + 520000 - 8x}{100} }}

\mapsto{ \sf{x =  \frac{87x + 520000}{100}}}

\mapsto{ \sf{100x = 87x + 520000}} \:  \: ( \sf{Cross \: multiplication}

\mapsto{ \sf{100x - 87x = 520000}}

\mapsto{ \sf{13x = 520000}}

\mapsto{ \sf{x =  \frac{520000}{13}}}

\mapsto{ \boxed {\sf{x = 40000}}}

Therefore, the cost price of the jewellery is Rs 40000

Hope I helped!

Best regards! :D

~\sf{TheAnimeGirl}

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Answer:

3x^2 (5x^3 + 4x^2 - 8x - 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

The given expression is 15x^5 + 12x^4-24x^3-3x^2

Here we have to find the GCF of all the above terms.

The GCF is 3x^2, let's take out 3x^2 and write the remaining terms in the parenthesis.

15x^5 + 12x^4-24x^3-3x^2

=3x^2 (5x^3 + 4x^2 - 8x - 1)

Therefore, the factors are 3x^2 and (5x^3 + 4x^2 -8x -1).

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Thank you.

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A poker hand is a set of 5 cards randomly chosen from a deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of a (a) royal flush (ten, jack,
zysi [14]

Answer:

a) 0.000001539

b) 0.00001385

c) 0.0002401

d) 0.001441

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Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 52 deck of cards, and the hand of the poker is 5 set, then the total number of hands achievable would be

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T = 52! / 5! 47 !

T = 2598560 possibilities.

a) There are 4 ways of getting a royal flush. So the probability of getting a royal flush is

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b) There are 9 hands from the 5 card hands, and also, there are 4 possible suits. So then, the probability is

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c) There are 13 possible ways to get a four of a kind, since there are 5 cards with the poker, the remaining would be taken from the 48 remaining cards, thus

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d) 3 of a kind in conjunction with a pair is needed to form a full house. This 3 of a kind can be gotten from any 4 suits. Then again, the pair has two cards with the same face value. So,

4! / 2! (4 - 2)! =

4! / 2! 2! = 6

That means, there are 6 possible ways to get our needed suits. Then, the probability of getting a full house is

13 * 4 * 12 * 6 / 2598560 =

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0.001441

e) To get a flush, all the 5 cards in the hand needs to have the same suit. Now, there are 13 different types of cards with only 5 cards being in the hand, thus

13! / 5! (13 - 5)! =

13! / 5! 8! = 1287

Now, recall that the question specifically asked us not to include any straight. There are 10 straights that can be gotten, and thus, we subtract it.

1287 - 10 = 1277

Since there are 4 suits, the probability of getting a flush is

1277 * 4 / 2598560 =

5108 / 2598560 = 0.001966

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