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RideAnS [48]
3 years ago
9

Which of the following explains why f(x)=log4X does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

Mathematics
2 answers:
lisov135 [29]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: A and C

Step-by-step explanation:

Volgvan3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A)There is no power of 4 that equals to 0

C) it’s inverse does not have any x-intercepts

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