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ololo11 [35]
4 years ago
13

Why is the mechanical advantage of using a single pulley always 1? Assume there’s no friction. a) The input force is in a differ

ent direction than the output force. b) The input force is less than the output force. c) The input force is greater than the output force. c) The input force is equal to the output force.
Physics
2 answers:
liubo4ka [24]4 years ago
8 0
The correct answer would be c! <3
Savatey [412]4 years ago
6 0
The answer is C.
Say you are pulling on a rope that goes over one frictionless pulley. You are essentially moving the mass but in a different direction than gravity, so there is no advantage or disadvantage. 
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A wire carrying a 29.0 A current passes between the poles of a strong magnet such that the wire is perpendicular to the magnet's
Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

2.59 T

Explanation:

Parameters given:

Current flowing through the wire, I = 29 A

Angle between the magnetic field and wire, θ = 90°

Magnetic force, F = 2.25 N

Length of wire, L = 3 cm = 0.03 m

The magnetic force, F, is related to the magnetic field, B, by the equation below:

F = I * L * B * sinθ

Inputting the given parameters:

2.25 = 29 * 0.03 * B * sin90

2.25 = 0.87 * B

=> B = 2.25/0.87

B = 2.59 T

The magnetic field strength between the poles is 2.59 T

4 0
3 years ago
Electric Circuits Homework
nirvana33 [79]
<h2>Sorry, But I don't know!!</h2>
3 0
3 years ago
Part A (4 pts) Consider light of wavelength λ = 670nm traveling in air. The light is incident at normal incidence upon a thin fi
s344n2d4d5 [400]

Answer:

Explanation:

On both sides of the film , the mediums have lower refractive index.

for interfering pattern from above , for constructive interference of reflected wave from both sides of the film , the condition is

2μt = ( 2n +1 ) λ / 2

μ is refractive index of film ,t is thickness of film λ is wavelength of light

n is order of fringe

for minimum thickness

n = 0

2μt =  λ / 2

t =  λ / 4μ

= 670 / 1.75 x 4

= 95.71 nm .

6 0
4 years ago
A solenoidal coil with 26 turns of wire is wound tightly around another coil with 350 turns. The inner solenoid is 20.0 cm long
noname [10]

Answer:

Part a)

\phi = 2.76 \times 10^{-7} T m^2

Part B)

M = 5.52 \times 10^{-5} H

Part C)

EMF = 0.1 V/s

Explanation:

Part a)

Magnetic field due to a long ideal solenoid is given by

B = \mu_0 n i

n = number of turns per unit length

n = \frac{N}{L}

n = \frac{350}{0.20}

n = 1750 turn/m

now we know that magnetic field due to solenoid is

B = (4\pi \times 10^{-7})(1750)(0.100)

B = 2.2 \times 10^{-4} T

Now magnetic flux due to this magnetic field is given by

\phi = B.A

\phi = (2.2 \times 10^{-4})(\pi r^2)

\phi = (2.2 \times 10^{-4})(\pi(0.02)^2)

\phi = 2.76 \times 10^{-7} T m^2

Part B)

Now for mutual inductance we know that

\phi_{total} = M i

\phi_{total} = N\phi

\phi_{total} = 20(2.76 \times 10^{-4})

\phi_{total} = 5.52 \times 10^{-6}

now we have

M = \frac{5.52 \times 10^{-6}}{0.100}

M = 5.52 \times 10^{-5} H

Part C)

As we know that induced EMF is given as

EMF = M \frac{di}{dt}

EMF = 5.52 \times 10^{-5} (1800)

EMF = 0.1 V/s

3 0
4 years ago
What evidence indicates that a chemical change took place when the iron and sulfur combined to form iron sulfide? A. The element
fgiga [73]

Answer:

Explanation:burn the gas

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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