Answer:
Explanation:
MIRR equation is given by :
[(FV +ve cashflow / PV -ve cashflow)^(1/n)] - 1
FV +ve cashflow = Future value of positive cashflow at reinvestment rate
PV - ve cashflow = Present value of negative cashflow at finance rate
n = number of periods
The Modified Internal Rate of Return is a devised modification for the Internal rate of return, IRR which gives rate of return on percentage and overcomes the limitations of the IRR formula.
Answer:
D. $ 367.500
Explanation:
We have to first compute the total direct labor cost. This is done by multiplying the estimated direct labor hours with the hourly rate.
Total Direct Labour costs $ 17.50 per hour * 15,000 hours = $ 262,500
Estimated manufacturing overhead per the data in the question is 140 % of Direct labor cost,
Estimated manufacturing overhead is $ 262,500 * 140 % = $ 367,500
Answer:
As in her worthless note,Sandy has a zero adjusted basis. Her bad debt deduction is Nil according to Section 166 (b).
Section 166(g)(1) states that her capital loss realized on the deemed sale of this stoke is also nil because of zero adjusted basis in her worthless stock.
According to Reg. Sec.1.1366-2(a)(5) if all of her stock is disposed by an S corporation shareholder and loss carryforward attributable to the Section 1366 (d) basis. Limitaitons are permanently disaalowed.
Hence, her $7,400 ordinary loss carryforward can never be deducted by Sandy.
Sandy has no 2012 tax consequences from worthlessness of her Lindlee investments
Answer:
The correct answer is (A)
Explanation:
Commercial finance is another way to generate funds, but they come with certain drawbacks compared to commercial banks. Commercial finance usually give loans to customers who are interested in more risky investments. The interest they charge is usually higher which can only be paid if a client invests in riskier investments to earn higher returns.
Answer: $5,150
Explanation:using the information given above,
For every $1 contributed by the employee, employer adds 50cent.
Employer contribution ends after employee contributes $2500 to the 401(k) plan.
Last year:
Ian's weekly contribution = $75
Number of weeks in a year = 52
Ian's total contribution ($75 × 52) = $3,900
Ian's Employer's total contribution:
$0.5 × $2500 = $1,250
Therefore total contribution last year :
$3900 + $1250 = $5,150
