Answer:
c. cease production immediately, because it is incurring a loss.
Explanation:
When a business engages in production it looks to make profit. That is for the production price to be higher than cost incurred in producing the good.
However when the price is lower than the average variable cost as is indicated in the scenario then the firm needs to shut down production in the short term.
Factors that will adversely affect a firm in the short term are price, average total cost, and average variable cost.
Once price is less than average total cost or average variable cost it is better to stop production.
As they are incurring an economic loss
Answer:
$940 Favorable
Explanation:
Fixed manufacturing overhead budget Variance = Budgeted fixed overhead cost - Actual total fixed manufacturing overhead cost
Fixed manufacturing overhead budget Variance = $71,500 - $70,560
Fixed manufacturing overhead budget Variance = $940 F
So, the fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance for the period is closest to $940 F
Answer: $80 million per year for 25 years
Explanation:
The option you should choose is one that will guarantee you the highest present value.
This means that you need to discount the annual payment of $80 million per year for 25 years to find the present value. As you did not include a rate, we shall assume a rate of 8% for reference purposes.
The annual payment is an annuity so the present value can be calculated by:
Present value of annuity = Annuity payment * Present value interest factor, rate, no. of years
= 80,000,000 * Present value interest factor, 8%, 25 years
= 80,000,000 * 10.6748
= $853,984,000
<em>The present value of the annual payment is more than the present value of the $850 million received today so the Annual payment should be taken. </em>
Answer: $5,440
Explanation:
When using the percent of sales method to determine bad debts, the company estimates a percentage that it believes will results in uncollectible debt and then applies it to the sales/revenue figure. The figure that is calculated is then debited along with the debit balance on the Allowance for doubtful accounts to the Bad debts account for the year and credited to the Allowance for doubtful accounts.
This company estimates that they will have 0.6% of credit sales uncollectible.
There are also $790,000 in sales of which all are on credit.
The Uncollectible estimate is therefore,
= 790,000 * 0.6%
= $4,740
This figure is then added to the debit amount on the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts.
= 4,470 + 700
= $5,440
Note; A debit balance on the Allowance for doubtful debt account signifies that the bad debts were higher than anticipated the last time. This is why the figure is added to the current bad debts expense.
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "c. Replace some workers with machines." one action an employer can take to lower wage levels is that <span>c. Replace some workers with machines.</span>