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3 years ago

The measure of angle 1 is one fourth of the measure of angle 3, what is the measure of angle 1?

Mathematics

1 answer:

vagabundo [1.1K]3 years ago

5 0

Answer: If the angle 3 is 90 degrees u did that by four and you should get angle 1 : 22.5 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

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Please Help!! Mathematics Grade 8

Evgen [1.6K]

you need to get a common denominator and subtract 20/32 from 26/32
z would equal 6

4 0

3 years ago

Naval intelligence reports that 99 enemy vessels in a fleet of 1818 are carrying nuclear weapons. If 99 vessels are randomly tar

oee [108]

Answer:

0.001687 = 0.1687% probability that no more than 1 vessel transporting nuclear weapons was destroyed.

Step-by-step explanation:

The vessels are destroyed and then not replaced, which means that the hypergeometric distribution is used to solve this question.

Hypergeometric distribution:

The probability of x successes is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}$

In which:

x is the number of successes.

N is the size of the population.

n is the size of the sample.

k is the total number of desired outcomes.

Combinations formula:

$C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

In this question:

Fleet of 18 means that $N = 18$

9 are carrying nuclear weapons, which means that $k = 9$

9 are destroyed, which means that $n = 9$

What is the probability that no more than 1 vessel transporting nuclear weapons was destroyed?

This is:

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

In which

$P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}$

$P(X = 0) = h(0,18,9,9) = \frac{C_{9,0}*C_{9,9}}{C_{18,9}} = 0.000021$

$P(X = 1) = h(1,18,9,9) = \frac{C_{9,1}*C_{9,8}}{C_{18,9}} = 0.001666$

Then

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.000021 + 0.001666 = 0.001687$

0.001687 = 0.1687% probability that no more than 1 vessel transporting nuclear weapons was destroyed.

4 0

3 years ago

The following graph describes function 1, and the equation below it describes function 2:

kati45 [8]

Answer:

Function 1 written in vertex form is f(x) = -x^2 + 8x - 15 = -(x^2 - 8x + 15) = -(x^2 - 8x + 16 + 15 - 16) = -(x - 4)^2 - (-1) = -(x - 4)^2 + 1

Therefore, vertex = (4, 1)

Function 2 written in vertex form is f(x) = -x^2 + 4x + 1 = -(x^2 - 4x - 1) = -(x^2 - 4x + 4 - 1 - 4) = -(x - 2)^2 - (-5) = -(x - 2)^2 + 5

Therefore vertex = (2, 5)

Function 1 has a maximum at y = 1 and function 2 has a maximum at y = 5. Therefore, function 2 has a larger maximum.

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

Y=1/2x+-4<br> Please answer

professor190 [17]

Put one dot on (0,-2) , (4,0), (-4,-4) connect the dots that is your graph line.

Slope is 1/2 and you is -4

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

If profit is p% and cost price is C.P what will be the selling price?

harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

SP = (1+P/100)CP.

Step-by-step explanation:

P% is our profit on our cost price.

Cp is our cost price.

We know,

Selling Price - Cost price = Profit = Profit * Cost Price

So,

SP = (1+P/100)CP.

7 0

2 years ago