4 years ago

Can anyone help me please?

Mathematics

1 answer:

TiliK225 [7]4 years ago

4 0

I hope this helps you

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x=7

Step-by-step explanation:

because ther is 7 days in a week

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(11x + 2y) - (5x – y)

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

$\mathrm{Remove\:parentheses}:\\=11x+2y-\left(5x-y\right)\\\\-(5x-y): -5x+y\\=11x+2y-5x+y\\Simplify:\\11x+2y-5x+y: 6x+3y\\\\=6x+3y$

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3 years ago

Chyra redeemed 175 shares of stock she owned in the fund shown below. Name of Fund NAV Offer Price CAH Group $15.83 $16.27 What

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Answer:

Option b $2,770.25

Step-by-step explanation

Chyra owned shares of stock, details are :

Name of Fund - CAH Group

NAV - $15.83

Offer Price - $16.27

Chyra redeemed stock = 175 shares

As we know shares can be redeemed on NAV price.

Chyra's proceeds = 175 × 15.83 = $2,770.25

Chyra's proceeds were $2,770.25.

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4 years ago

Fill in the blanks below to make a true statement. In a binomial experiment with n trials and probability of success p, if np (1

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Answer:

$\mu_{x}=np$

$\sigma^2_{X}=np(1-p)$

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ When x is a random variable having distribution B(n, p), then for sufficiently large value of n, the following random variable has a standard normal distribution,

$\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\sim N(0,1)$

Where,

$\mu=np$

$\sigma^2=np(1-p)$

Here the variable X has a binomial distribution,

Such that, np (1 - p) ≥ 10 ⇒ n is sufficiently large.

Where, n is the total numbers of trials, p is success in each trials,

So, the mean of variable X is,

$\mu_{X} = np$

And, variance of variable X is,

$\sigma^2{X}=np(1-p)$

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3 years ago