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zlopas [31]
3 years ago
14

Generally, regardless of threat or vulnerability, there will ____________ be a chance a threat can exploit a vulnerability.

Business
1 answer:
ehidna [41]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": always.

Explanation:

Vulnerability management is responsible for the prevention, identification, and elimination of threats that might exploit vulnerabilities in a software system. After the threat has obtained unauthorized access, the threat will damage or destroy the software and no matter how big the software's weakness is, a threat will exploit it.

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On January 1, 2012, Cale Corp. paid $1,020,000 to acquire Kaltop Co. Kaltop maintained separate incorporation. Cale used the equ
malfutka [58]

Answer:

The correct option is D) $127,000.

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

On January 1, 2012, Cale Corp. paid $1,020,000 to acquire Kaltop Co. Kaltop maintained separate incorporation. Cale used the equity method to account for the investment. The following information is available for Kaltop's assets, liabilities, and stockholders' equity accounts on January 1, 2012:

                                          Book  Value        Fair Value

Current assets                      $120,000          $120,000

Land                                           72,000           192,000

Building (20yr life)                  240,000           268,000

Equipment (10yr life)               540,000            516,000

Current Liabilities                      24,000             24,000

Long-term Liabilities                120,000           120,000

Common Stock                       228,000

Additional Paid-in Capital       384,000

Retained Earnings                   216,000

Kaltop earned net income for 2012 of $126,000 and paid dividends of $48,000 during the year.

In Cale's accounting records, what amount would appear on December 31, 2012 for equity in subsidiary earnings?

A) $ 77,000.

B) $ 79,000.

C) $125,000.

D) $127,000.

E) $ 81,800.

The explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

Total amortization of allocations for 2012 = ((Building fair value – Building book value) / 20 year) + ((Equipment fair value - Equipment book value) / 10 years) = (($268,000 - $240,000) / 20) + (($516,000 - $540,000) / 10) = -$1,000

Amount for equity in subsidiary earnings on December 31, 2012 = Kaltop earned net income for 2012 - Total amortization of allocations for 2012 = $126,000 - (-$1,000) = $126,000 + $1,000 = $127,000

The amount that would appear on December 31, 2012 for equity in subsidiary earnings is $127,000. Therefore, the correct option is D) $127,000.

4 0
3 years ago
4.An important feature of a is that the holder has the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell currency.(a)swap(b)foreign
Ratling [72]

Answer:

(c) Foreign exchange option

Explanation:

Derivatives refer to those securities whose value is derived from the underlying asset. Examples being currency derivatives, commodity derivatives, etc.

Foreign exchange option refers to a derivative instrument whereby the holder has the right but not the obligation to buy or sell a currency at a future date at a  predetermined rate fixed today.

In a call option, the holder has the right but not the obligation to buy a currency while in a put option the holder has the right but not the obligation to sell a currency.

The predetermined price at which the holder can buy or sell a currency is referred to as the strike price or exercise price.

5 0
3 years ago
On June 19, Don Co., a U.S. company, sold and delivered merchandise on a 30-day account to Cologne GmbH, a German corporation, f
nirvana33 [79]

Answer: $197,600

Explanation: Don Co is making a sale to Cologne GmbH and on the date of the transaction there is an exchange rate called the spot rate. Don Co will record in its books the value of the transaction on the set date at the spot rate which is:

200,000 euros @ .988

= $197,600

on the date of the settlement of the debt by Cologne GmbH, the spot rate is also considered which will be 200,[email protected] .995 = $199,000

Note that on the payment date, the exchange rate has gone up and now Don Co has a higher receivable value that what is in its book.

the difference of $1,400 ($199,000-$197,600) will now be noted in the books of Don Co as an exchange gain on the transaction.

8 0
3 years ago
One bond has a coupon rate of 5.4%, another a coupon rate of 8.2%. Both bonds pay interest annually, have 13-year maturities, an
Gekata [30.6K]

Answer:

a. rate or return bond 1 <u>6.6%</u> bond 2 <u>7.71%</u>

b. Does the higher-coupon bond give a higher rate of return? <u>yes</u>

Explanation:

bond 1 has a coupon rate of 5.4%

bond 2 has a coupon rate of 8.2%

yield to maturity formula = {C + [(Face value - market value) / n]} / [(Face value + market value) / 2]

assume bond 1's face value = $1,000

coupon = 54

n = 13

YTM = 7.5%

0.075 = {54 + [(1,000 - M) / 13]} / [(1,000 + M) / 2]

0.075 x  [(1,000 + M) / 2] = 54 +  [(1,000 - M) / 13]

0.075 x (500 + 0.5M) = 54 + 76.92 - 0.0769M

37.50 + 0.0375M = 130.92 - 0.0769M

0.0375M + 0.0769M = 130.92 - 37.50

0.1144M = 93.42

M = 93.42 / 0.1142 = $818.04

rate of return = $54 / $818.04 = 0.066 = 6.6%

assume bond 2's face value = $1,000

coupon = 82

n = 13

YTM = 7.5%

0.075 = {82 + [(1,000 - M) / 13]} / [(1,000 + M) / 2]

0.075 x  [(1,000 + M) / 2] = 82 +  [(1,000 - M) / 13]

0.075 x (500 + 0.5M) = 82 + 76.92 - 0.0769M

37.50 + 0.0375M = 158.92 - 0.0769M

0.0375M + 0.0769M = 158.92 - 37.50

0.1144M = 121.42

M = 121.42 / 0.1142 = $1,063.22

rate of return = $82 / $1,063.22 = 0.07712 = 7.71%

8 0
3 years ago
Which is the most accurate definition of body language?
boyakko [2]

Answer:

b

Explanation:

b

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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