Really hope i'm right
1st row
the first one is length less than 10
one next to it is width greater than 5
next to that is length greater than 10
2nd row
the first one is length greater than 10
one next to that is width less than 5
next to that is width greater than 5
3rd row
first one is width less than 5
and last is length less than 10
D) Because if you do 9 *6 you get 54 minutes until the next time.
Yes it looks like it would be right
Answer:
10
Step-by-step explanation:
75c-300=25c+200
-25c -25c
50c-300=200
+300 +300
50c=500
c=10
Answer:
We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.
Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.
Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have
number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.