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CaHeK987 [17]
3 years ago
15

A portfolio that combines the risk-free asset and the market portfolio has an expected return of 6.5 percent and a standard devi

ation of 9.5 percent. The risk-free rate is 3.5 percent, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 11.5 percent. Assume the capital asset pricing model holds. What expected rate of return would a security earn if it had a .40 correlation with the market portfolio and a standard deviation of 54.5 percent?
Business
1 answer:
mario62 [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: Step 1) Find share of market in the Portfolio

(11.5-3.5)x+3.5=6.5

8x=3

x=3/8

x=0.375

=37.5%

SD of market portfolio= 0.375x+0=9.5

x=9.5/0.375

=25.33%

correl = cov / (std 1 * std2)

0.4=COV/0.2533*0.545

COV= 0.2533*0.545*0.4=0.05

cov of 2 assets = b1 * b2 * variance of market

0.05=B1*1*0.2533^2

B of security=0.0032

Capm Model

3.5+0.0032(11.5-3.5)=3.5256% expected return

Explanation:

Step 1) Find the share of market in the portfolio in order to find market SD

Step 2)  Find Covariance betweens security and market by using both SDS and correlation

Step 3) Find Beta of Security using Co variance

Step 4) Use the Beta in CAPM model in order to find expected return

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Answer:

The Journal entries are as follows:

(a) On February 1,

Allowance for doubtful accounts      Dr. $8,800

To Account receivable-Oakley Co                         $1,900                      

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(To record write off)

(b) On June 5,

(i)

Account receivable-Oakley Co.         Dr. $1,900

To Allowance for doubtful accounts                     $1,900

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(ii)

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3 years ago
Economic Darwinism:
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Answer:

Explanation:

Economic Darwinism explains why some inefficient accounting practices persist. Inefficient accounting systems may continue to exist either because they have proved better than other systems or because better systems have not been yet discovered.

3 0
4 years ago
Analysis of an income statement, balance sheet, and additional information from the accounting records of Gadgets, Inc., reveals
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Answer and Explanation:

The categorization is shown below:

1 Purchase of a patent = Investing activities  as it represents in a negative sign because it is a cash outflow

2 Depreciation expense Operating activities  as it is added to the net income

3 Decrease in accounts receivable =  Operating activities  as it is added to the change in adjustments column

4 Issuance of a note payable = Financing activities  as it represents in a a positive sign because it is a cash inflow

5 Increase in inventory = Operating activities  as it is deducted from the change in adjustments column

6 Collection of note receivable = Investing activities  as it represents in a positive sign because it is a cash inflow

7 Purchase of equipment  = Investing activities  as it represents in a negative sign because it is a cash outflow

8 Exchange of long term assets = Separate non cash activities note  as it does not involved any cash transactions

9 Decrease in accounts payable = Operating activities  as it is deducted from the change in adjustments column

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3 years ago
Say the marginal tax rate is 20 percent and that government expenditures do not also that the economy is at potential output and
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<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

a) The deficit is structural deficit, not cyclical deficit

b) Structural deficit is $450 billion

Revenue less than outlays; the GDP = Potential GDP

cyclical - during a recession , Structural - normal times

This is the budget deficit at potential GDP

Structural deficit = Total Government deficit - Cyclical Deficit

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c) the deficit is both structural and cyclical

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Structural = 450 - 200 = 250

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Structural deficit = $100 billion

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=$940000*5/100

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=$40000

Thus, Carrying Amount of Bond=Carrying Amount|+Interest Expense-Interest Paid

Carrying Amount as on 30th June=940000+47000-40000

Carrying amount as on 30th June=$947000

Amount Paid to Redeem Bonds =$1020000

Gain/(Loss) on Redemtion of Bonds=Face Value-Amount Paid to Redeem Bonds

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6 0
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