Answer:
f (
x
) −
1 =
(
1/
4 x
) −
2.
Step-by-step explanation:
For inverse function, the x and y interchanges and then make y the subject again of the equation. See the working out below:
f (
x
) = 4
x + 8
f (
x
) = y
y = 4
x + 8
x = 4
y +
8 ----- interchanging y and x
Now make y the subject of the equation:
x = 4
y + 8
−
4
y = -
x + 8
y = (
−
1/
4 )
. − x
+ (
−
1/
4 ) .8
y = (
1/
4 x
) −
2
So the inverse function is:
f (x) −
1 = (
1/
4 x
) −
2
Answer:
(f(x, y, z), g(x, y, z), h(x, y, z))
Step-by-step explanation:
i think it is amswer
Here we have a case of the least common multipl(lcm) of 6 and 20.
Prime numbers 2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19... (natural numbers greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself) .
lcm(6,20)= 6 20 | 2
3 10 | 3
1 10 | 2
5 | 5
1
2*3*2*5=60 The first one to get both calendar and the animal toy will be 60th.
Explenation: First we look for the smallest prime number with wich 6 and 20 can be devided by. That is 2. Next is 3. Since 10 is not divisible by 3, we only copy it. Under the 6 we got 1, wich is our goal. Now we continue to devide 10 by prime numbers till we also get 1. We now multiple all divisors and we get the least common multiple.
To re-phrase this: 50 is a certain percent of 90.
this can be written mathematically as 50=x%*90
let's divide both sides by 10:
5=x%*9
and divide both sides by 9:
which in decimals is approximately 0.56 (but not exactly).
so 0.56=x%
and the x then 56
so 50 is
approximately 56% of 90:
exactly 56%of 90 is 50.4
Answer:
D.) 1/3
Step-by-step solution:
12/36 can be simplified to 1/3.
