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4 years ago

The perimeter of a rectangle is 62cm. Find it’s length.

Mathematics

1 answer:

liubo4ka [24]4 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

All of the other values multiplied by two would go over 62.

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2 questions

Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

1. A. $33 loss

2. B

Step-by-step explanation:

1. -26 - 11 - 9 +13 = -33

2. B is the only graph in which the Whole Numbers do not contain a negative or decimal (which are not WNs)

8 0

3 years ago

An estimated 3 out of every 25 men are left-handed. What percent of men are left-handed?

Annette [7]

3/25=x/100
25x=300
300/25=x
x=12%

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep

Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 2)$

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

3 0

3 years ago

PLS HELP WILL MARK BRAINLIESTTT What is the solution to this inequality?

vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer:

a. x > 0.2

Step-by-step explanation:

In either order, subtract the left-side constant and divide by the x-coefficient.

3x +2.4 > 3

3x > 0.6 . . . . . . subtract 2.4

x > 0.2 . . . . . . . divide by 3

x + 0.8 > 1 . . . . divide by 3

x > 0.2 . . . . . . . subtract 0.8

8 0

3 years ago

2. Given f(x) = 4x -2 and g(x) = x2 + 1, evaluate:

Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

a).

f(5) = 18

b).

g(-3) = 10

c).

g(x-2) = x²- 3

d).

f(g(x)) = 4x²- 1

3 0

3 years ago