All categories

3 years ago

The main problem with the fee-for-service model is that doctors have an incentive to:

1 answer:

5 0

The main problem in regards of fee for service model to doctors is that they are likely to provide an incentive to overtreat by which it allows the doctors to provide treatment several times and it drives the cost high for everyone involved.

You might be interested in

Ben katchor used _____ to create multiple locations for the production of the slugbearers of kayrol island.

Aleonysh [2.5K]

<span>Ben katchor used projections to create multiple locations for the production of the slugbearers of kayrol island.

Thank you for posting your question here at brainly. I hope the answer will help you. Feel free to ask more questions.
</span>

7 0

3 years ago

You are the manager of a firm that produces products X and Y at zero cost. You know that different types of consumers value your

arlik [135]

Answer and Explanation:

If you charge $40 for X then everyone will buy as everyone is willing to pay atleast $40. this means all three groups buy that is 3*1000 buyers.So profit from X = 3000*40= $120,000

And since everyone is willing to willing to pay atleast $60 for Y again all three groups will buy so profit from Y =3000*60=$180,000

profits=$300,000

If you charge $90 and $160 for X and Y respectively you will have only 1000 buyers for each product as others are unwilling to pay this much.

So profits = 1000*90 + 1000*160=$250,000

for a bundle of X and Y buyers are willing to pay a total of $150, $210 and $200 across the three categories.

So everyone will buy a bundle of 1 X and 1 Y.

profits = 150*3000= $450,000

If you charge $210 only the second will buy as they are willing to pay that much so profits =1000*210=$210,000

Also by selling X at $90 group 1 will buy X; profits=1000*90=$90,000

and by selling Y at $160 group 3 will buy Y; profits=1000*160=$160,000

total profits =$460,000

8 0

3 years ago

50 red and 50 black balls in a box when you randomly pick two balls without replacement

LUCKY_DIMON [66]

2/100
=1/50
.........

7 0

3 years ago

Keenan Industries has a bond outstanding with 15 years to maturity, an 8.25% nominal coupon, semiannual payments, and a $1,000 p

ycow [4]

Answer:

6.52%

Explanation:

For computing the nominal yield to call, first we have to find out the present value by applying the present value formula which is shown in the attachment below:

Future value = $1,000

Rate of interest = 6.50% ÷ 2 = 3.25%

NPER = 15 years × 2 = 30 years

PMT = $1,000 × 8.25% ÷ 2 = $41.25

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)

So, after solving this, the present value is $1,166.09

Now to determine the yield to call we use the RATE formula that is shown in the attachment below:

Present value = $1,166.09

Future value or Face value = $1,120

PMT = $1,000 × 8.25% ÷ 2 = $41.25

NPER = 6 years × 2 = 12 years

The formula is shown below:

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)

The present value come in negative

So, after solving this, the bond nominal yield to call is

= 3.26% × 2 years

= 6.52%

8 0

3 years ago

Consider the U.S. market for loanable funds in a closed-economy model. Answer the following questions about each scenario.The go

kompoz [17]

Answer:

supply of loanable funds to the left; increase and decrease respectively.

Explanation:

The increase in the capital gains tax will reduce, the savings as it axes earnings on assets in the stock market. This reduction in savings will cause the supply of loanable funds to decrease.

This will further cause the supply curve for loanable funds to shift to the left. This leftward shift in the loanable fund's supply curve will cause the interest rate to increase and the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds to decrease.

6 0

3 years ago