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Blizzard [7]
3 years ago
11

During the financial crisis of 2007-2008, the Fed engaged in lending to certain large non-bank financial firms in the private se

ctor.
Which of the statements describes the reasoning behind the Fed's decision to engage in this type of non-traditional lending?

a) The Fed wanted to make a higher than normal return on their investment.
b) The Fed wanted to limit the interest rate risk inherent among financial institutions.
c) The Fed wanted to limit the systemic risk inherent among financial institutions.
d) The Fed wanted to limit the inflation risk inherent among financial institutions.
Business
2 answers:
Delvig [45]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: D. The Fed wanted to limit the inflation risk inherent among financial institutions.

Explanation: An alternative lender, or non-traditional lender, is a loan provider, often a short-term loan lender that is often not heavily regulated by state or federal agencies. ... Secured loans typically have lower interest rates than unsecured non-traditional loans because they minimize the lender's risk of loss.

borishaifa [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

b) The Fed wanted to limit the interest rate risk inherent among financial institutions.

Explanation:

Financial crisis occurs when values of financial institution or assets drop rapidly, which often coincides with stock market crashes, investor asset withdrawal and banking panics. There is always a recession after financial crisis because of the drop in asset value.

The 2007-2008 financial crisis was caused by the deregulation of the financial sector that permits banks to engage in hedge fund trading with derivatives. To solve the financial crisis, the Fed deployed a variety of strategies and tactics to coax rates downward to stimulate the economy, some of the strategies employed by the Fed were:

i)  Interest rate cuts

ii) Targeted assistance to ailing financial institutions

iii) Quantitative easing (or Large-Scale Asset Purchases)

iv) Forward guidance about interest rates

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The allowance for doubtful accounts currently has a debit balance of $200. The company's management estimates that 2.5% of net c
lidiya [134]

Answer:

Bad debt expense (w/o allowance) = $2,875

Bad debt expense ( with allowance) = $2,675.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Net credit sales = $115,000

Uncollectible percentage = 2.5%

So, we can calculate the bad debt expense without Allowance for doubtful accounts by using following method:

Bad debt expense ( W/o allowance) = $115,000 × 2.5%

= $2,875

After Allowance for doubtful expense

Bad debt expense = $2,875 - $200

= $2,675

4 0
3 years ago
Assume that we are in the MM world. The beta of an all-equity firm is 1.4. Suppose the firm changes its capital structure to 40
balu736 [363]

Answer:

2.3

Explanation:

Levered Beta = Unlevered Beta x (1+D/E)

D/E = Debt-to-Equity Ratio

1.4 x (1 + 04 / 0.6) = 1.4 x 1.667 = 2.3

8 0
3 years ago
A trade surplus occurs when the value of imports is__________. A. less than the value of exports. B. government spending is less
Reika [66]

Answer: Option A

         

Explanation: In simple words, trade surplus refers to the economic condition under which a country's value of goods sold to other countries, that is, exports is greater than the value of goods it purchases from other countries ,that is, imports.

Trade surplus is seen as a positive indicator of economic growth as a country in surplus will behaving more money to invest in public core services and wont be spending their tax collections on interest and loans taken by international assignations such as IMF or world bank.

Hence from the above we can conclude that the correct option is A.

5 0
3 years ago
Consider a hypothetical closed economy in which households spend $0.70 of each additional dollar they earn and save the remainin
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

(a) 0.7

(b) 3.33

(c) -$210

(d) -$147

(e) -$1 trillion

Explanation:

(a) Marginal propensity to consume (MPC) = 0.7

(b) Multiplier of this economy:

=\frac{1}{1-MPC}

=\frac{1}{1-0.7}

      = 3.33

(c) Decrease government purchases by $300 billion,

Initial change in consumption = Change in government purchases × MPC

                                                  = $300 × 0.7

                                                  = -$210 billion

(d) This decreases income yet again, causing a second change in consumption equal to:

= Initial change in consumption × MPC

= -$210 × 0.7

= -$147 billion

(e) The total change in demand resulting from the initial change in government spending is:

= Change in government purchases × Multiplier

= $300 × 3.33

= -$1 trillion

7 0
3 years ago
Taylor wants to generate a graph to show how is she doing at saving. What tool should she use?
bogdanovich [222]
D. a graphic software

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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