Answer:
Explanation:
I will give a basic hint to understanding this problem
Prevailing technique or what is best known as "Dominant Strategy" is an activity profile that is best for a specific player review of what different players are picking. for this situation there is no prevailing procedure for any player on the grounds that there is no single activity profile that expands the result for any player.
So we can say from this observations that the following is valid;
- A doesn't have a dominant strategy
- B doesn't have a dominant strategy
There are two Nash equilibria for this situation. Both the organizations are charging a low cost and both the organizations are charging a significant expense.
As such they can augment their benefit given what the adversary is doing.
I hope this explains the observation seen.
cheers I hope this helps
Answer:
$4,050
Explanation:
Selling price is $135,000
Commission is 6 %
Actual commission 6/100 x 135,000
= .06x 135000
=$8100
Brokers gets 50 %, and the agent 50%
Actual amount= 50/100 x 8100
= 0.5x$8100
=$ 4050
Answer: C. Liquidity.
Explanation:
The Investor has a long term time frame and desires to earn the market rate. For this to happen, financial vehicles catering for her needs would need to be locked up for a longer period of time for example 5 years before they allow withdrawals.
She however, wants to be able to withdraw yearly. This would mean that some of her positions would either need to be liquidated yearly or would have to pay a significant yearly payout.
As earlier mentioned, longer term instruments are usually locked up for long periods to be able to get the market rate. If the investor needs a yearly withdrawal from her positions, getting it from locked up positions will be a Liquidity challenge. The positions won't be easily sold and could attract a hefty fee to be liquidated and because they are locked up, they will not pay out yearly either.
Answer: Implement a risk response plan in order to ensure availability of alternate venue location
Explanation:
Once the decision has been made and approved, the next thing to do is to implement a risk response plan in order to ensure that the alternate venue location is available.
Risk response planning simply means having other options in order to improve opportunities and so that the threat to the achievement of s particular objective can be minimized.
In this case, it is important that the alternative location is available in case there's a rain.
The stage in a work-unit activity analysis that focuses on the product, information, or service provided is the output phase, This is further explained below.
<h3>What is the output phase?</h3>
Generally, the output phase is simply defined as manufacturing or output in general.
In conclusion, The final deliverable is defined. The method of measuring the output is investigated.
Read more about the output phase,
brainly.com/question/14863117
#SPJ12