All categories

3 years ago

Write 40% as a fraction

Mathematics

2 answers:

AleksandrR [38]3 years ago

7 0

Answer: The answer is 2/5

Vilka [71]3 years ago

7 0

Answer: 2/5

Step-by-step explanation: To convert a Percent to a Fraction follow these steps:

Step 1: Write down the percent divided by 100 like this: percent 100.

Step 2: If the percent is not a whole number, then multiply both top and bottom by 10 for every number after the decimal point. ...

Step 3: Simplify (or reduce) the fraction.

You might be interested in

Pleasee help asap i dont have much time worth 10 points

uysha [10]

The answer is E
step by step explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

One box of cake mix makes a maximum of 24 cupcakes. A caterer needs 300 cupcakes for an event.

krek1111 [17]

We are given the data that in each box of cupcakes the capacity is a maximum of 24. There are 300 cupcakes required. Hence the number of boxes needed is 300 cupacakes/ 24 cupcakes/ box. The answer is equals to 12. 5. Since there is no such thing as 0.5 box, the answer is rounded up to C. 13

5 0

3 years ago

Probability The average time between incoming calls at a switchboard is 3 minutes.if a call has just come in,the probability tha

Stels [109]

Answer:

a) 0.1535

b) 0.4866

c) 0.8111

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the next call come within the next t minutes is:

$p(t) = 1 -e ^{- t/3}$

According to this model,

a) the probability that a call in comes within 1/2 minutes is $p(t) = 1 -e ^{- (1/2)/3}$ =0.1535

b) the probability that a call in comes within 2 minutes is $p(t) = 1 -e ^{-2/3}$ =0.4866

c) the probability that a call in comes within 5 minutes is $p(t) = 1 -e ^{-5/3}$ =0.8111

6 0

3 years ago

Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.8. (Round your ans

Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

a) 0.011 = 1.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 17 pins is at least 51

b) 0.0001 = 0.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 45 pins is at least 51

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the normal probability distribution and the central limit theorem.

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean $\mu$ and standard deviation $\sigma$ , the zscore of a measure X is given by:

$Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}$

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Central Limit Theorem

The Central Limit Theorem estabilishes that, for a normally distributed random variable X, with mean $\mu$ and standard deviation $\sigma$ , the sampling distribution of the sample means with size n can be approximated to a normal distribution with mean $\mu$ and standard deviation $s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}$ .

For a skewed variable, the Central Limit Theorem can also be applied, as long as n is at least 30.

In this problem, we have that:

$\mu = 50, \sigma = 1.8$

(a) If the distribution is normal, what is the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 17 pins is at least 51?

Here $n = 17, s = \frac{1.8}{\sqrt{17}} = 0.4366$

This probability is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 51. So

$Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}$

By the Central Limit Theorem

$Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}$

$Z = \frac{51 - 50}{0.4366}$

$Z = 2.29$

$Z = 2.29$ has a pvalue of 0.9890

1 - 0.989 = 0.011

0.011 = 1.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 17 pins is at least 51

(b) What is the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 45 pins is at least 51?

Here $n = 17, s = \frac{1.8}{\sqrt{45}} = 0.2683$

$Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}$

$Z = \frac{51 - 50}{0.0.2683}$

$Z = 3.73$

$Z = 3.73$ has a pvalue of 0.9999

1 - 0.9999 = 0.0001

0.0001 = 0.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 45 pins is at least 51

8 0

3 years ago

I REALLY need help with this! Could someone please help me?

denis23 [38]

Answer:

It's the first option

Step-by-step explanation:

The Midsegment Theorem states that the segment connecting the midpoints of two sides of a triangle (in this case AB and AC) is parallel to the third side (BC) and half as long.

4 0

3 years ago